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Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) > Principles (Part II) (Irene Gold) > Flashcards

Principles (Part II) (Irene Gold) Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the Discoverer/Founder of Chiropractic?

A

Daniel David (DD) Palmer

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2
Q

What year was Chiropractic founded in?

A

1985

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3
Q

What are the “Short Levers” used by DD Palmer?

A

SP & TVP

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4
Q

What is the foundation that Chiropractic is Based upon?

A

Tone (Nerves to tense or too slack)

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5
Q

What does the Nerve Compression Theory state?

A

Causes of Subluxations are one of the following:
Psychic (Thoughts)
Mechanical (Trauma)
Chemical (Toxins)

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6
Q

What phrase did DD Palmer coin?

A

Innate from Christianity

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7
Q

Where did DD Palmer learn Chiropractic from?

A

Eastern European Bone Setters

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8
Q

What is Chiropractic philosophy based on?

A

Principle of Structure (Spinal Column) to Function (Nervous System for healing)

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9
Q

What is a term that is similar to Innate?

A

Homeostasis (Self Regulating and Self Healing)

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10
Q

What term is defined as “Suggest that the body requires something greater than physical and chemical processes to function”?

A

Vitalism

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11
Q

Who is the Developer of Chiropractic?

A

Bartlett Joshua (BJ) Palmer

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12
Q

What three things did BJ Palmer introduce to the profession?

A

Neurocalometer (hand held instrument to detect heat imbalances)

Meric Chart of Nerve Tracing

Hold In One (HIO) Technique

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13
Q

At what vertebral complex does the Hole In One (HIO) Technique apply?

A

C1/C2; were thought to be the only place a subluxation would occur, producing significant problems. Cord Compression Theory

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14
Q

Who thought that “Subluxations are from abnormal Biomechanics caused by an imbalance in a weight bearing spine”?

A

Carver

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15
Q

What did Carver think that all distortion of the spine started?

A

Pelvis

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16
Q

What technique is Cox credited with developing?

A

Flexion/Distraction

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17
Q

What five conditions can Flexion/Distraction technique help with?

A 
Lumbar disc protrusion
Spondylolisthesis
Facet Syndrome
Subluxation
Scoliosis Curves
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18
Q

Who developed the Sacro-Occipital Technique (S.O.T)

A

DeJarnette

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19
Q

What is the “definition” of the Sacro-Occipital Technique (S.O.T)

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) flow through the pumping action of the sacrum and the cranial Dura mater

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20
Q

Who is paired with “Fixation theory of joint Hypomobility”?

A

Gillet/Faye

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21
Q

What technique/person believed that “Subluxations are all posterior with disc wedging”?

A

Gonstead

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22
Q

What technique is; upper cervical specific and deal with the dentate ligament?

A

Grostic

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23
Q

Who is the Father of Homeopathy?

A

Hahnemann

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24
Q

Who is the Father of Modern Medicine and was the first to manipulate?

A

Hippocrates

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25
Q

What four things did Illi determine?

A

Joint Hypermobility
SI joint movement
Pelvic dynamics
Discovered/tested (SI) ligaments

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26
Q

What is credited with the “3 Phase model of Instability”?

A

Kirkaldy-Willis

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27
Q

What are the three Phases of Instability?

A

Dysfunction
Unstable
Stabilization; breaking up spinal adhesions on and injured segment

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28
Q

Who is associated with the Segmental Facilitation Theory?

A

Korr

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29
Q

What is the center of Korr’s Segmental Facilitation Theory?

A

Muscle

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30
Q

What Theory is described as the following “Subluxation creating a hyperactive nervous system rather than a decease in nerve impulses”?

A

Segmental Facilitation Theory, Korr

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31
Q

Who is the first to use heel lifts, and “sacrum is the keystone to the spine”?

A

Logan, Founded Logan Basic Technique

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32
Q

Who are the two “World Renowned scientist in the field of Biomechanics of the spine”?

A

Panjabi

White

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33
Q

What is the General Adaptation Syndrome?

A

Under optimum conditions the body can respond to stressors

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34
Q

Who came up with the General Adaptation Syndrome?

A

Selye

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35
Q

What three things did Stephenson come up with?

A

Wrote Chiropractic Textbook
Identified 33 Principles of Chiropractic
“Safety Pin” Cycle

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36
Q

Who is the Founder of Osteopathy?

A

Andrew Taylor Still

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37
Q

Who “related the integrity of the spine and skeleton to the proper function of the circulatory system”?

A

Andrew Taylor Still

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38
Q

Who named the profession of Chiropractic?

A

Samuel Weed

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39
Q

What are the four parts of the Core Chiropractic Paradigm?

A
  1. The Body is Self Regulating and Self Healing
  2. Nervous System is the master system, regulates everything and connects person to their environment
  3. Spinal biomechanics can cause subluxations and affect the body’s nervous system and body function
  4. Chiropractor; correct, manage and minimize vertebral subluxation through adjusting
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40
Q

What are the five components of a Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

A 
Neuropathophysiology
Kinesiopathophysiology
Myopathoology
Histopathology
Pathophysiology (Biochemical)
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41
Q

Who came up with the Five components of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

A

Faye

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42
Q

What are three parts of the Neuropathophysiology of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

A

Irritation (Sustained Hyperactivity)

Compression or Mechanical Insult (Pressure, Stretching, Angulation, Distortion)

Decreased Axoplasmic Transport

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43
Q

What does Irritation of the Neuropathophysiology of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC) result in?

A

Facilitation

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44
Q

Irritation of the Anterior Horn cell exhibits what response?

A

Hypertonicity or muscle spasm

Acute Facilitated

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45
Q

What is exhibited when the Lateral Horn Cells are Irritated?

A

Vasomotor Changes

i. e.: Hypersympatheticotonic Vasoconstriction
* Acute Facilitated*

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46
Q

What Horn is Irritated when Sensory Changes are exhibited?

A

Posterior Horn Cells

Acute Facilitated

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47
Q

What does Compression in the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) result in?

A

Degeneration, which leads to:
Muscle atrophy (Anterior Horn)
Anesthesia (Posterior Horn)
Sympathetic Atonia (Lateral Horn)

Chronic Inhibited

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48
Q

What “Alters development, growth, and maintenance of cells or structures that are dependent on this trophic (Growth) influence expressed via the nerves”?

A

Decreased Axoplasmic Transport

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49
Q

What three phases can describe Kinesiopathophysiology?

A

Hypomobility
Diminished/Absent Joint Play
Segmental hypermobility due to compensation

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50
Q

What is Lack of Appropriate Joint Motion associated with in Kinesiopathophysiology?

A

Nociceptive and Mechnoreceptive reflex functions that include Proprioception

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51
Q

What do Early manifestations of Vertebral Subluxation lead to? (Kinesiopathophysiology)

A

Chronic Vertebral articulations

Shortening of Ligaments–>Limited Range of Motion (ROM)

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52
Q

What is the Cornerstone Model of Chiropractic because it’s the goal of adjusting to restore motion?

A

Kinesiopathophysiology

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53
Q

What component of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC), may include spasm or Hypertonicity of muscles as a result of compression/facilitation?

A

Myopathoology

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54
Q

What is Hilton’s Law? (Myopathoology)

A

A nerve supplying a joint also supplies the muscles which move the joint and skin covering the articular intersection of those muscles

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55
Q

What is an Acute Condition of Myopathoology?

A

Spasm

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56
Q

What is a Chronic Condition of Myopathoology?

A

Atrophy

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57
Q

What are the four component of Histopathology of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC) relate to?

A

Inflammation
Pain
Heat
Swelling

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58
Q

How can the four components of Histopathology happen/become a result?

A

Trauma
Hypermobility Irritation
Repair Process

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59
Q

What are the five signs of Inflammation seen in Histopathology?

A 
Redness (Rubor)
Heat (Calor)
Swelling (Tumor)
Pain (Dolor)
Loss of Function (Functio Laesa)
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60
Q

What component of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC) is described as “Hormonal and chemical effect or imbalances related to the pre-inflammatory stress syndrome”?

A

Pathophysiology (Biochemical)

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61
Q

What three things are produced in the Pathophysiology (Biochemical) of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

A

Histamines
Prostaglandins
Bradykinins

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62
Q

What are two areas you will see the Pathophysiology (Biochemical) of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

A

Stress Syndrome

Pro-Inflammatory

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63
Q

What is the end result of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

A

Dis-Ease

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64
Q

What are the four Neurological Reflex Models?

A

Somatosomatic
Viscerovisceral
Somatovisceral
Viscersomatic

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65
Q

What must all reflex arcs involve?

A

Spinal Cord

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66
Q

What is a Reflex Arc?

A

Where the sensory meets the Motor

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67
Q

What Neurological Reflex Model is described as “Stimulus at one level of the musculoskeletal system produces reflex activity in the nervous system, which is then exhibited elsewhere in the musculoskeletal system”?

A

Somatosomatic

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68
Q

What is an example of the Somatosomatic Reflex?

A

Knee-Jerk reflex

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69
Q

What Reflex Model is “Afferent and Efferent are visceral sensory and autonomic nerve fibers”?

A

Viscerovisceral

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70
Q

What is a Somatovisceral reflex?

A 
Afferents= Somatic Sensory Fibers
Efferents= Autonomic Fibers
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71
Q

What reflex is described as “Stimulus to nerves or receptors related to spinal structures produces reflexive responds to influencing function in the visceral organs”?

A

Somatovisceral

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72
Q

What is an example of Somatovisceral Reflex Arc?

A

Relieving pain and distress of primary dysmenorrhea via adjustments

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73
Q

What is a Viscerosomatic reflex?

A 
Afferents= Visceral Sensory Fibers
Efferents= Somatic Motor Fibers

Opposite of Somatovisceral Reflex

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74
Q

What four things does the term “Somatic” refer to?

A

Skin
Bone
Muscle
Nerve

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75
Q

What is another term for Visceral?

A

Autonomic

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76
Q

What three things are related to Visceral (Autonomic)?

A

Organs
Lymph
Blood

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77
Q

What is the term defined as “Thinking about something”?

A

Psycho

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78
Q

Where does the “GATE” control theory of pain start?

A

Substantia Gelatinous (Lamina II of the Grey Mater)

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79
Q

What determines the degree of which the “Gate” is opened or closed?

A

Spinal Cord

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80
Q

Signals travelling on what fibers greatly depress pain transmission?

A

Type 1A (A Alpha), Fast, Afferent

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81
Q

What fibers does Pain travel on?

A

Type C (IV) Fibers

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82
Q

Where do pain fibers terminate?

A

Dorsal Horn of the Spinal Cord in the Substantia Gelatinosa

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83
Q

In the “Gate” Theory, when second order mechanoreceptor axon terminate what is caused?

A

Presynaptic inhibition

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84
Q

What do the subclavian arteries become?

A

Vertebral Arteries, then join to become the basilar arteries

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85
Q

What does the majority of the blood from the Vertebral Arteries supply?

A

Cranium

Brain Stem

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86
Q

What are the nine symptoms that may be included with Vascular Insufficiency Models?

A

5 D’s, 3 N’s and an A

Diplopia (Double Vision, other visual disturbance)
Dizziness (Vertigo, Light Headedness)
Drop Attacks (Loss of Consciousness)
Dysarthria
Dysphagia

Nausea (Vomiting)
Numbness (On one side of the body or face)
Nystagmus

Ataxia of Gait

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87
Q

Where is the most common location for compression of the vertebral artery?

A

Over the posterior arch of C1

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88
Q

What movements cause the most compression of the Vertebral Artery?

A

Rotation and Extension of C1/C2

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89
Q

What is the area of importance in the Nerve Compression Theory?

A

Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)

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90
Q

What hypothesis “States that intervertebral subluxations may interfere with the normal transmission of nerve energy by irritating or compressing spinal nerve roots”?

A

Nerve Compression theory

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91
Q

What are the six anatomical components that can be found in the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?

A 
Spinal Nerve
Nerve Root
Recurrent Meningeal Nerve
Blood Vessels
Lymphatics 
Connective Tissue
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92
Q

What effects will be seen when a bone is on a nerve?

A 
Decreased sensation 
Pain in dermatome patterns 
Decreased Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTR)
Decreased nerve conduction
Muscle Atrophy
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93
Q

Why are Nerve Roots more mechanically predispose to irritation or compression than peripheral nerves?

A

Nerve Roots are placed in tension by traction of peripheral nerves, with head and neck movements

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94
Q

What are Nerve Roots (Endoneurium) lacking?

A

Strong Connective Tissue Sheaths that support Peripheral nerves (Epineurium and Perineurium)

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95
Q

Under what kind of strength will a Nerve Root fail before a Peripheral Nerve?

A

Tension

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96
Q

What is the term for Chemicals transported along Axoplasmic Transport?

A

Trophic

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97
Q

What is the slower kind of flow called?

A

Axoplasmic Transport (Retrograde)

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98
Q

What are four things to know about Antegrade Transport?

A

Forward Moving– Cell Body to Terminal
Nerve Growth (Tropic)
Faster
More Common

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99
Q

What are four things to know about Axoplasmic Flow?

A

Backwards Moving
Bring products/waste to the cell body
Slower
Less Common

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100
Q

What will the alteration of Axoplasmic Flow lead to?

A

Aberrations of:
Structures
Function
Metabolism

Leading to Disease or Dysfunction

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101
Q

What are the four things that can cause Cord Compression (Compressive Myelopathy)?

A 
Destruction of the Spinal Cord Tissue by:
Neoplasms
Hematomas
Congenital Defects
Extreme Trauma
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102
Q

What Hypothesis was used by BJ Palmer to describe the Hole In One (HIO) Technique?

A

Cord Compression

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103
Q

What vertebral level did BJ Palmer think would affect any and all functions of the body?

A

C1/C2

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104
Q

What are six other names for the Facilitation Hypothesis?

A 
Fixation Theory
Segmental Facilitation
Segmental Hypothesis
Gamma Motor Gain
Proprioceptive Insult
Sympatheticotonia
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105
Q

What hypothesis is described as “A lowered threshold for firing in a spinal cord segment, as a result of afferent bombardment associated with spinal lesions”?

A

Fixation Theory

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106
Q

Who developed the first model to describe the neurological effects of segmental dysfunction?

A

Korr

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107
Q

How did Korr’s model describe segmental dysfunction?

A

Sustained hyperactivity of a segment caused by a muscle spindle of activity

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108
Q

What are the neurological implications of Korr’s Fixation Theory?

A

Segmental Dysfunction causes pathological somatic and visceral processes

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109
Q

Korr stated that a vertebra “stuck” in a normal or abnormal position but has normal Range of Motion is do to what?

A

Muscle spasm, producing Hypomobility and nociception (Pain)

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110
Q

What is the definition of Proprioceptive Insult?

A

Constant bombardment of nociception, lowering the threshold

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111
Q

What is another name for Neurodystrophic Hypothesis?

A

Neuroimmunomodulation

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112
Q

What theory is described as “Spinal biomechanical insult to nerves may affect intra-neural Axoplasmic transport mechanisms and, in turn, affect the quality of neurotropic influence and molecular (chemical) changes in the cell?

A

Neurodystrophic Hypothesis

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113
Q

In what theory did DD Palmer state that “Lowered tissue resistance is the cause of disease”?

A

Neuroimmunomodulation

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114
Q

Who stated that exposure to stress can cause “diseases of adaptation”?

A

Selye

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115
Q

What are the four stages of Adaptation?

A

Alarm
Resist
Adapt
Exhaust

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116
Q

What is the name of the mechanism that coordinates the response to stress?

A

Neuroendocrine

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117
Q

What is the name of the ligament that holds the dens in the fovea dentalis of atlas? (The indent on the posterior side of the anterior tubercle)

A

Transverse Ligament

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118
Q

What ligament goes from occiput to C2, includes the transverse ligament as the horizontal position and is Cross Shaped?

A

Cruciate Ligament

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119
Q

What ligament limits rotation of C2?

A

Alar Ligament

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120
Q

What is another name for the Alar Ligament?

A

Check Ligament

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121
Q

Where is the Alar ligament attached?

A

Sides of the dens to the occipital condyles

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122
Q

What motion is limited by the Apical Dental Ligament?

A

Limits flexion/extension of C2

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123
Q

Where is the attachment sites of the Apical Dental Ligament?

A

Apex of the dens to the anterior aspect of the foramen

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124
Q

What is the name Ligaments that connects the Pia to the Dura along the spinal cord?

A

Dentate Ligament (21 total ligaments)

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125
Q

What ligament limits Extension?

A

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

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126
Q

Where is the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament located?

A

Front of the vertebral bodies from Sacrum to C2

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127
Q

What is the Tectorial Membrane?

A

Continuation of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament from C2 to the Occiput

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128
Q

Where is the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament the Widest, Thinner and Thinnest?

A

Widest- Cervicals
Thin- Lumbar
Thinnest- L5

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129
Q

What is the most important posterior ligament in limiting flexion?

A

Ligamentum Flavum

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130
Q

What is the name of the Ligament that is a continuation of the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament from Atlas to Occiput?

A

Anterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament

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131
Q

What Ligament limits flexion?

A

Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

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132
Q

Where is the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament located?

A

Back of the Vertebral Bodies (Anterior Portion of the Canal)

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133
Q

Where is the Ligamentum Flavum Located?

A

Lamina to Lamina (Posterior portion of the canal)

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134
Q

What Ligament has a high elastic content and is “yellow” in color?

A

Ligamentum Flavum

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135
Q

What is the name of the Ligamentum Flavum as it continues for C2 to C1?

A

Posterior Atlanto-Axial Ligament

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136
Q

What is the name of the Ligament given to the continuation of the Ligamentum Flavum from C1 to the Occiput?

A

Posterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament

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137
Q

Where can the Capsular Ligament be found?

A

Between Articular Processes

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138
Q

Where is the Supraspinous Ligament found?

A

From Spinous Process to Spinous Process

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139
Q

What is the name of the ligament between transverse processes?

A

Intertransverse Ligament

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140
Q

What is the name of the Ligament between Spinous Processes?

A

Interspinous Ligament

141
Q

What is the name of the Ligament that is a continuation of the Supraspinous Ligament from C7 to the Occiput?

A

Ligamentum Nuchae (Nuchal Ligament)

142
Q

At what levels is the Intervertebral Disc found?

A

Between the bodies of C2/C3 to the Lumbosacral Junction

143
Q

What are the two basic components of the Intervertebral Disc?

A

Central- Gelatinous Nucleus Pulposus

Peripheral- Fibrocartilaginous Annular Fibrosus

144
Q

What part of the disc allows for “limited torsion and limited rotation of the vertebra”?

A

Annulus Fibrosus

145
Q

What is one function of the Annulus Fibrosus?

A

Allows the disc to adapt to stress

146
Q

What is the blood supply that innervates the outer portion of the Annulus Fibrosis?

A

Sinuvertebral Nerves

147
Q

What causes disc herniation, during the aging process?

A

Water content gradually decreases

148
Q

Why are thoracic disc herniations rare?

A

Disc is very thick in this part of the spine

149
Q

What is the positions that will increase pressure of the disc?

A 
Recumbent 
Standing
Sitting
Sitting Leaning Forward
Jumping
150
Q

Where is the weakest part of the disc?

A

Posterolateral Aspect (narrowing of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament)

151
Q

What will cause a fracture to the endplate but not a herniation?

A

Compressive Loads to the disc

152
Q

How is the disc provided nutrients?

A

Imbibition (Motion)

153
Q

What is the name given to “the connective tissue coverings arranged in thee distinct layers that cover and protect the spinal cord from excessive movement and damage”?

A

Meninges

154
Q

What is the most external layer of the meninges?

A

Dura Mater

155
Q

What layer of the meninges is the thickest and toughest?

A

Dura Mater

156
Q

Where is the Dura Mater located?

A

Continuous for the cranial cavity to the Sacrum

157
Q

What two thing does the Dura Mater cover?

A

Individual nerve roots

Nerves as they exit the spinal canal

158
Q

The sleeves of the Dura Mater follow what?

A

Nerves to the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)

Surround a Swelling, which is the Dorsal Root Ganglion

159
Q

What part of the Meninges is delicate and avascular?

A

Arachnoid Mater

160
Q

What part of the Meninges is attached to the inner surface of the Dura?

A

Arachnoid Mater

161
Q

What word is described for the projections from the Arachnoid to the Pia Mater?

A

Web-like

162
Q

What is the name of the meninges that is a singular layer of connective tissue that adheres directly to the surface of the neural tissue, including individual cranial nerves and spinal rootlets?

A

Pia Mater

163
Q

Where is the primary location of the Dentate Ligaments?

A

Thoracic Region

164
Q

What side of the spinal cord do the Dentate Ligament project from and where do they attach?

A

Project- Lateral surface

Attach- Penetrate the Arachnoid Mater and anchor to the Dura Mater

165
Q

What Theory does the Dentate Ligament go with?

A

“Dural Torque Theory”

Rotational stresses, meningeal torsion

166
Q

In what movement will the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) open and close?

A

Open-Flexion

Close-Extension

167
Q

What are the boundaries of the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?

A 
Anterior: Bodies (Cervical and Uncinates)
                Intervertebral Disc (IVD)

Superior: Pedicle
Inferior: Pedicle

Posterior: Zygopophyseal Joints (Facet Joints)

168
Q

What are the anatomical contents of the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)? (Six things)

A 
Spinal nerve
Nerve root
Recurrent Meningeal nerves
Blood Vessels
Lymphatics
Connective Tissue
169
Q

What is the order of compression in an Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?

A

Adipose Tissue
Veins
Artery
Nerve

170
Q

What is located inside the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?

A

Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)

171
Q

What type of pressure is a Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG) most sensitive to?

A

Compression

172
Q

What is most effected by a subluxation?

A

Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)

173
Q

What is another name for a Cell body?

A

Soma

174
Q

What part of the neuron structure extends from the soma an receives signal information from the local environment?

A

Dendrite

175
Q

What term is “Signals which travel as action potentials are generated here”?

A

Axon

176
Q

What is an Action Potential?

A

Summation of signals received from dendrites, which can be stimulatory or inhibitory . When it reaches the end of an axon it causes the release of a neurotransmitter

177
Q

What two factors are action potentials based on?

A

Diameter of the nerve

Degree of myelination

178
Q

What is the name of the cell that produces myelin in the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

A

Oligodendrocytes

179
Q

What condition has demyelinization of the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

A

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

180
Q

What is the name of the cell that produces myelin in the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) (Insulates Nerve Fibers)

A

Schwann Cells

P.S- I Love you Schwann)

181
Q

What condition has demyelinization of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?

A

Guillain-Barre

182
Q

Where are cell bodies located?

A

Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)

183
Q

What two processes does each Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG) contain?

A

Peripheral Process- extends to the periphery along he path taken by the spinal nerve and it’s branches

Central Process- extends into the Central Nervous System (CNS), as the dorsal root of the spinal nerve

184
Q

What two “senses” does a Mechanoreceptor determine?

A

Touch

Hearing

185
Q

What “sense” does a Thermoreceptor determine?

A

Temperature

186
Q

What “sense” does a Nocioceptor determine?

A

Pain

187
Q

What cell helps with determining Vision?

A

Electromagnetic

188
Q

What two “senses” does a Chemoreceptor determine?

A

Smell

Taste

189
Q

What type of Somatic Motor Neuron, innervate and active skeletal muscle fibers through the Myoneural Junction?

A

Alpha Motor Neurons

190
Q

What are two characteristics of an Alpha Motor Neuron?

A

Large Diameter

Fast Conducting

191
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by Alpha Motor Neurons?

A

Acetylcholine

192
Q

What are two functions of Gamma Motor Neurons? (Somatic Motor Neuron)

A

Innervates muscle spindles

Establishes a set point for muscle tone

193
Q

What are four characteristics of A Alpha nerves?

A

Heavily Myelinated
Fastest
Largest
Most Sensitive

194
Q

What are the six nerve fibers that are Peripheral Nerve Fibers?

A 
A Alpha
A Beta
A Gamma
A Delta
B
C
195
Q

What are three characteristics of C Fibers?

A

Un-Myelinated pain fibers
Small Diameter
Slow Conductivity

196
Q

What is the Primary Neurotransmitter of C Fibers?

A

Substance P

197
Q

What types of Sensory Only nerve fiber goes to the Muscle Spindle?

A 
1A (Sensory Fiber)
A Alpha (Peripheral Nerve)
198
Q

What type of Sensory Only nerve fiber is associated with Golgi Tendon Organs?

A

1B (Sensory Fiber)

199
Q

What Type of nerve fibers is linked to “Muscle Spindle detects stretch/velocity”?

A 
1A Motor (Contraction of Muscle) (Sensory Fiber)
A Alpha (Peripheral Nerve)
200
Q

What Nerve fiber is linked with “Muscle Spindle effect, muscle tone”?

A

A Gamma Motor Neuron (Peripheral Nerve)

201
Q

What nerve fiber is Preganglionic Autonomic Effect and White Rami Communicantes?

A

B (Peripheral Nerve)

202
Q

What nerves are Fast Pain (Pressure Pain)?

A 
A Delta (Peripheral Nerve)
III (Sensory Fiber)
203
Q 
What two nerves are with the following:
Slow Pain
Temperature Afferent 
Postganglionic Autonomic Efferent
Gray Rami Communicantes
A

C (Peripheral Nerve)

IV (Sensory Fiber)

204
Q

What two nerves are with the following:

  • Touch Pressure Receptor Afferents
  • Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO) detects tension on joint/tendon

Sensory:
Joint position sense
Vibration sense
Two Point discrimination

A

A Beta (Peripheral Nerve)

1B (Sensory Fiber)

205
Q

What is the most important function of the Autonomic Nervous System(ANS)?

A

Regulate Blood Flow

206
Q

What hormone is released by the Sympathetic Nervous System?

A

Epinephrine

207
Q

What is the location, Level and Horn, of the Sympathetic Nervous System?

A

T1-L2

Lateral horn of the spinal cord

208
Q

What is the phrase that is usually associated with the Sympathetic Nervous System?

A

Fight or Flight

209
Q

What are the body responses of the Sympathetic Nervous System?

A

Vasoconstriction of the Skin
Increased sudomotor activity (Sweat Glands)
Pilomotor Response (Hair Standing on End)
Pupils Dilate
Bronchodialation
Tachycardia
Blood to large Muscles

(Vasomotor, Sudomotor, Pilomotor=Sympathetic)

210
Q

What is the term when the Sympathetic Nervous System is stimulated/facilitated?

A

Sympathicotonia

211
Q

What is the term when the Sympathetic Nervous System is inhibited?

A

Sympathetic Atonia

212
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

Acetylcholine

213
Q

What is another term for the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

Cholinergic

214
Q

What is another term for the Sympathetic Nervous System?

A

Adrenergic

215
Q

What is the location of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

Cranio-Sacral Division
Cranial Nerves: III, VII,IX,X
(“Cranial Nerves 3,7,9,10 are Parasympathetic Friends”)

Sacral Nerves: S2,S3,S4 (“Keep the Penis off the Floor”)

216
Q

What is the phrase usually associated with the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

Rest and Digest

217
Q

What are the two terms when the Parasympathetic Nervous System is stimulated/facilitated?

A

Parasympathicotonia

Vagotonia

218
Q

What is the term when the Parasympathetic Nervous System is inhibited?

A

Parasympathetic Atonia

219
Q

What are the body responses of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A 
Increased Peristalsis
Increased Smooth Muscle activity
Depressed respiration
Pupil Constriction
Bradycardia
Bowel and Bladder activity increased
Stimulation of secretions
220
Q

What spinal tract is responsible for “Proximal Muscle Flexors of the upper extremity”?

A

Rubrospinal Tract

221
Q

What spinal tract is responsible for “Extensor Muscle of the back and arms”?

A

Reticulospinal Tract

**Except and back muscles innervated by a Plexus;
Dorsal Scapular Nerve: Rhomboids and Levator Scapula
Thoracodorsal Nerve: Latissimus Dorsi

222
Q

What spinal tract is responsible for “Neck Muscles”?

A

Tectospinal Tract

223
Q

What area of the brain is responsible for reflex to light?

A

Superior Colliculus

224
Q

What area of the brain is responsible for the reflex of sound?

A

Inferior Colliculus

225
Q

What spinal tract is responsible for “information from the cerebellum and vestibular nuclei” (Extensor Muscle of Back and Legs)?

A

Vestibulospinal Tract

226
Q

What spinal tract is responsible for “For Flexors of the distal extremities (hands and feet)”?

A

Corticospinal Tract (Pyramidal Tract)

227
Q

What are the two sensations picked up by the Lateral Spinothalamic Tract?

A

Pain

Temperature

228
Q

What are the two sensations picked up by the Ventral Spinothalamic Tract?

A

Crude Touch

Pressure

229
Q

The Dorsal Columns Medial Lamniscus (DCML) carry what sensation?

A

Conscious Proprioception

230
Q

What are three examples of Conscious Proprioception?

A

Vibration
Joint Position Sense
2-Point Discrimination

(Dorsal Columns; Medial Lamniscus)

231
Q

What two receptors in the Dorsal Columns pick up Touch?

A

Meissner’s

Merkel’s

232
Q

What receptor in the Dorsal Columns pick up Vibration?

A

Pacinian Corpuscle

233
Q

What receptor in the Dorsal Columns pick up Joint Position Sense?

A

Ruffini

234
Q

What sensation is picked up by the Spinocerebellar Tract?

A

Unconscious Proprioception

235
Q

What two types of cells are found in the Spinocerebellar Tract?

A

Muscle Spindle Cells (MSC)

Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO)

236
Q

What type of fiber and “Feeling” are determined by Muscle Spindle Cells?

A

Type 1a fiber

Feeling- Stretch

237
Q

What type of fiber and “Feeling” are determined by Golgi Tendon Organ?

A

Type 1b fiber

Feeling- Tension

238
Q

What are the six Goals of Adjustments?

A
  1. Stimulate the 1b Golgi Tendons and Postsynaptic Inhibition of the alpha motor neurons due to fast stretch on the tendon
  2. Close the pain gait by sending a proprioceptive message to the Central Nervous System (CNS) on large type A fibers
  3. Increase mechanoreceptors bombardment (closing pain gait)
  4. Break up adhesions
  5. Increase Mobility/Motion
  6. Improve Neurological Function
239
Q

On the Meric Chart what are the levels of C2/C3 associated with?

A

Tonsils

240
Q

What levels on the Meric Chart are associated with the Heart and Lungs?

A

T1-T4

241
Q

On the Meric Chart what level is associated with the Gallbladder?

A

T4

242
Q

What level on the Meric Chart are associated with the Stomach?

A

T5-T9

243
Q

What three organs are associated with the T6-T10 area of the Meric Chart?

A

Liver
Pancreas
Gallbladder

244
Q

On the Meric Chart what levels are associated with the Kidney?

A

T10-T12

245
Q

What levels and two organs are Sympathetically Driven on the Meric Chart?

A

Level: L1-L2

Organs:
Ovary
Colon

246
Q

What area and two organs are Parasympathetically Driven on the Meric Chart?

A

Area: Sacrum

Organs:
Colon
Uterus

247
Q

What term has the following definition: Sensory impulses from the periphery to the posterior horn of the spinal cord?

A

Afferent

248
Q

How is the term Allodynia defined?

A

Perception of pain from a normally non-painful stimulus

249
Q

What term has the following definition: Pathological fusion of bone across a joint?

A

Ankylosis

250
Q

What are the components of a Anterior Motion Segment?

A

Two Vertebral Bodies
Intervertebral Disc
Weight Bearing

251
Q

What term has the following definition:
Type II nerve injury
Physical disruption of the axon with Wallerian degeneration results in temporary paralysis and sensory changes. Intact sheath of the Schwann allows recovery in weeks to month. Partial reaction of degeneration.

A

Axonotmesis

252
Q

What is released from a damaged muscle cell
Is part of the inflammatory process
Sensitizes Nociceptors

A

Bradykinin

253
Q

Which nerve fibers are: Small, Slow, Non-Myelinated and carry pain sensation (Nociceptors)

A

C Fibers

254
Q

The following definition describes what word:
An increase in strain of a material that occurs during constant stress from loading. It is a deformation of viscoelastic tissue to a constant, steadily applied load. In the body, the structure may or may not return to it’s original length or shape?

A

Creep

255
Q

What structure innervates the skin and muscles of the back?

A

Dorsal Rami

256
Q

What kind of pain is seen by nerve root compression?

A

Dermatogenous Pain

257
Q

What are three words to describe a Dermatogenous Pain Pattern?

A

Sharp
Burning
Radicular

258
Q

How is the term Efferent defined?

A

Motor impulses from the Anterior horn of the spinal cord to the periphery

259
Q

What word is defined by the following:

The tendency of a tissue under load to return to it’s original size and shape after the removal of the load?

A

Elasticity

260
Q

What structure in the body has a major elastic component?

A

Ligaments

261
Q

What word has the following definition:

Connective Tissue that surrounds an individual nerve fiber?

A

Endoneurium

262
Q

What is the definition of Epineurium?

A

Connective tissue that surrounds the entire nerve and it’s major branches

263
Q

What anatomical structure is responsible for direction of motion (Directional Guidance)?

A

Facets

264
Q

What term has the following definition:

Increase in afferent stimulation causes a decrease threshold for firing?

A

Facilitations

265
Q

What will a continued stimulation resulting in?

A

Hyperactive Responses

266
Q

Where are Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO) located and what do they detect?

A

Location: End of the Muscle

Detect: Muscle Tension

267
Q

What is inhibited when a Golgi Tendon Organ (GTO) is stimulated?

A

Muscle Contraction

268
Q

What term has the following definition:
Treats the patient with heavily diluted preparations (Primarily from plants and mineral sources) which are thought to cause effects similar to the symptoms present?

A

Homeopathy

269
Q

The following definition is paired with what word?
Presences of excess blood in the vessels supplying a particular region of the body with hyper-active responses (Hypersympathicotonia)

A

Hyperemia

270
Q

What is the term for an effect of constant loading and unloading of a tissue?

A

Hysteresis

271
Q

What is thought to be an over use movement in the body causing Hysteresis?

A

Leaning Forward

272
Q

What is the term for “Intra-Articular synovial tabs”

A

Meniscoid

273
Q

What can a Meniscoid prevent?

A

A joint from having full mobility

274
Q

What is a Motion Segment?

A

Function Unit of the Spine

275
Q

What are the parts that make up a Motion Segment?

A

Two Vertebral Bodies
Disc (Between the Bodies)
Articular Facets
Ligaments binding the two vertebra together

276
Q

What components of the Motion Segment make up the

Anterior and Posterior parts?

A

Anterior: Vertebral Bodies and Disc

Posterior: Articular Facets

277
Q

What term is defined by the following:

A receptor that is sensitive to the length/stretch of an intrafusal fiber?

A

Muscle Spindle

278
Q

What term has the following definition:
Type I nerve injury

A local nerve conduction block (Nerve pressure or blunt trauma) with no physical disruption of the axon resulting in transient paralysis, slight sensory change

No reaction of degeneration

Recovery is usually hours to days

A

Neurapraxia

279
Q

What is the name of the structure that is a “Sensory receptor sensitive to pain”?

A

Nocioceptor

280
Q

What term has the following descriptions:
Type III Nerve Injury

Most serious degree of nerve injury. Involves the disruption of the nerve and the nerve sheath

Full reaction of degeneration

No recovery is possible

A

Neurotmesis

281
Q

What occupation had the “Focus was on the “rule of the Artery” and used nonspecific manipulation to enhance the flow of blood”?

A

Osteopathy

282
Q

What is the definition of Perineurium?

A

Connective tissue that surrounds smaller bundles of nerve fibers

283
Q

What term has the following definition:
Property of material that instantly deforms when a load is applied and does not return to it’s original shape when the load is removed?

A

Plasticity

284
Q

What is an anatomical example of Plasticity?

A

Bone

285
Q

What makes up the Posterior Motion Segment?

A

Articular Facets

286
Q

What two type of receptors surround the Posterior Motion Segment?

A

Mechanoreceptors

Nociceptors

287
Q

Where are and what is the function of Proprioceptors?

A

Location: Muscles, Tendons, Joints

Function: Detect position and motion of the body

288
Q

What kind of pain is often seen in a Facet or Sacroiliac (SI) joint?

A

Scleratogenous Pain

289
Q

What are to characteristics of Scleratogenous Pain?

A

Pain is dull in nature

Poorly localized pain

290
Q

What is another name for the Sinuvertebral Nerve?

A

Recurrent Meningeal Nerve

291
Q

What term is described by the following:
Recurrent branches of the primary dorsal rami of the spinal nerve that innervates the fascia, ligaments, periosteum, intervertebral joints and intervertebral disc of the vertebra

Goes to the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (PLL), Ligamentum Flavum, and anterior Dura

A

Sinuvertebral Nerve

292
Q

What ligament does the Recurrent Meningeal Nerve not go to?

A

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

293
Q

What term “essentially refers to the skin, bone, nerve and muscle”?

A

Soma (Somatic)

294
Q

What is the term that refers to growth and nutrition?

A

Trophic

295
Q

What structure runs through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebra, beginning at C6?

A

Vertebral Arteries

296
Q

Obstruction of what area and artery may lead to insufficient blood flow to the head?

A

Area: Transverse Foramina

Artery: Vertebral Artery

297
Q

What structure in the spinal cord, innervates the skin and muscles of the trunk and limbs?

A

Ventral Rami

298
Q

What is the term that refers to the autonomic organs, blood and lymph vessels?

A

Viscera (Visceral)

299
Q

What is the term that has the following definition:

The principle that maintains the laws of physics and chemistry cannot explain the nature of life?

A

Vitalism

300
Q

What is the definition of Wolff’s Law?

A

Bone is shaped by the forces placed on it or the lack of forces as in immobilization

301
Q

What Law has the following definition:
The trunk of a nerve sends branches to a particular muscle, the joint moved by the muscle and the skin overlaying the insertion of the muscle.
Altered nerve activity to a muscle may be associated with altered nerve activity to the segmentally related spinal joints.

A

Hilton’s Law

302
Q

What Law is described by: Increased epiphyseal pressure leads to decreased grown and vice versa

A

Heuter-Volkman’s Law

303
Q

What disease is an example of Heuter-Volkman’s Law?

A

Scheuermann’s Disease

304
Q

What law states; the Anterior horn of the cord is motor, while the posterior horn is sensory?

A

Bell-Magendie

305
Q

What sensation is perceived by the examiner during passive range of motion of a joint?

A

End Feel

306
Q

What is Soft Tissue Approximation?

A

Normal resistance felt with the joint motion is restricted by soft tissue (i.e. Elbow Flexion)

307
Q

How is Bony Palpation described?

A

Abrupt halt as two hard surfaces meet

Full range of motion has been achieved

308
Q

What is another term for a Spasm?

A

Guarded, resisted by muscle contraction

309
Q

What should you feel in a Spasm?

A

Muscle reaction

310
Q

Why can end feel not be felt is Spasm?

A

Because of pain or Guarding

311
Q

What is one condition that is a spasm that may be a contraindication to adjust?

A

Torticollis

312
Q

What term is defined as “Perceived as a hard arrest with a slight give”?

A

Capsular feel

313
Q

What condition may have a Capsular Feel of Palpation?

A

Sub-acute or chronic arthritis (Rheumatoid Arthritis)

314
Q

How Is Springy Block Palpation defined?

A

Slight “rebound” at the end range of motion

315
Q

What is one condition that may have a Springy Block feeling?

A

Meniscal Tear, internal derangement of the joint (Positive Bounce Home Test)

316
Q

What is the term used when a patient feels pain before full range of motion is achieved?

A

Empty Feel

317
Q

What is possibly suggested by Empty Feel?

A

Pathology (i.e. Bursitis, Abscess, Neoplasm)

318
Q

What kind of Fixation has the following description:
Secondary fixation due to chronic involuntary Hypertonicity of muscles

Palpates as deep, taut and tender fibers,

Exhibits restricted mobility and rubbery end bock

A

Muscular Fixation

319
Q

What is an example of Muscular Fixation?

A

Acute Torticollis

320
Q

What kind of Fixation has the following characteristics:
Chronically fixed segment that may lead to ligamentous shortening

Palpates as an abrupt hard block with no end play with a normal range of motion

A

Ligamentous Fixation

321
Q

What is an example of Ligamentous Fixation?

A

Chronic Whiplash

322
Q

What kind of Fixation has the following characteristics:
Fixation due to Exostosis

Joint exhibits free motion up to a point where there is an abrupt, complete, hard arrest

A

Bony Fixation

323
Q

What is an example of Bony Fixation?

A

Advanced Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)

324
Q

What kind of Fixation has the following characteristics:
Major Fixation due to intra-articular adhesions

Joint has no end movement and is painful when challenged

A

Articular/Capsular Fixation

325
Q

What is an example of Articular/Capsular Fixation?

A

Frozen Shoulder (May become Ankylosed)

326
Q

What term is defined as the following:

A written report on the details of a series of related cases

A

Case Series

327
Q

What term is defined as the following:

A written report on the details of a single case

A

Case Study

328
Q

What term is defined as the following:

Research that address issues directly related to patient care

A

Clinical Research

329
Q

What term is defined as the following:
A prospective longitudinal experiment design to assess the comparative efficacy of effectiveness of a treatment, often labeled a randomized clinical trial if random assignments of subject are made to each of the comparison treatment groups

A

Clinical Trial

330
Q

How is the term Cohort defined?

A

Defined group of people observed over a period of time

331
Q

What term is defined as the following:
Comparison group assignment in a clinical trial that receives no treatment, a placebo treatment or an alternative treatment

A

Control group

332
Q

What is the term defined as “Measurements taken at one moment in time”?

A

Cross Sectional Studies

333
Q

What term is defined as the following:

An experiment in which patients and either doctors or outcome assessors are blind

A

Double Blind Study

334
Q

What is the definition of Frequency?

A

A general or statistical expression of how often a condition or disease occurs

335
Q

What is the definition of a Gold Standard?

A

A measured of agreed upon accuracy and validity

336
Q

What term is defined as the following:

The proportion of a clearly defined group, initially free of a condition, that develops it over a period of time

A

Incidence

337
Q

What term is defined as the following:

The consistency of measured results between different practitioners evaluating the same thing

A

InTERobserver reliability

338
Q

What term is defined as the following:

The consistency in which one practitioner can consistently arrive at the same result

A

InTRAobserver reliability

339
Q

What term is defined as the following:
A study in which the researcher observes events as they occur naturally or in the course of normal practice, without attempting to have any influence

A

Observational Study

340
Q

How is the term Prevalence defined?

A

The proportion of a population having a particular condition or outcome at a given moment

341
Q

What term is defined as the following:

A study that reviews events that have already occurred

A

Prospective Study

342
Q

What term is defined as the following:

A prospective longitudinal study in which the patients are divided into two or more groups on a randomized basis

A

Randomized Control Study

343
Q

How is the term Reliability defined?

A

The consistency of a measurement when repeated

344
Q

What is a Retrospective Study?

A

A study that reviews events that already occurred

345
Q

What term is defined as the following:

The proportion of times a diagnosis study is correct in patients without a specific diagnosis

A

Sensitivity

346
Q

What term is defined as the following:

A study in which the patients are blind as to weather they are in the experimental or comparison group

A

Single Blind Study

347
Q

What term is defined as the following:

The proportion of times a diagnostic procedure is correct in a patient without a specific diagnosis

A

Specificity

348
Q

What term is defined as the following:
The degree to which an observation or measurement provides an indication of the true state of the phenomena being measured

A

Validity

Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) (12 decks)

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