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Systemic > Test Two > Flashcards

Test Two Flashcards

1
Q

Muscular tissue counts for how much of the total body mass

A

40 to 50%

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2
Q

What are the three types of muscular tissue

A

Skeletal, cardiac and smooth

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3
Q

Function of muscular tissue

A

Producing body movements, stabilizing body positions, control of body openings and passages, producing heat

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4
Q

What are the properties of muscular tissue

A

Electrical excitability, conductivity, contractility, extensibility, elasticity

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5
Q

What is autorhythmic electrical signals

A

Pacemaker

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6
Q

What is a neurotransmitter

A

Chemical stimuli

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7
Q

What is electrical excitability

A

Respond to certain stimuli by producing action potentials

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8
Q

What is conductivity

A

The ability of muscular tissue to conduct or transmit impulses

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9
Q

What is contractility

A

The ability of muscular tissue to contract forcefully

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10
Q

What is extensibility

A

The ability of muscular tissue to stretch, within limits, without being damaged

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11
Q

What is elasticity

A

The ability of muscular tissue to return to its original length and shape after contraction or extension

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12
Q

A skeletal muscle consists of

A

Body connected by tendons to the skeleton

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13
Q

Functions of tendons

A

Attaches a muscle to the periosteum of a bone

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14
Q

What is an aponeurosis

A

Muscular connective tissue extend as broad, flat sheet, such as epicranial aponeurosis

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15
Q

Endomysium wraps around

A

Each myofiber

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16
Q

Perimysium wraps around

A

Multiple myofibers creating fascicle

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17
Q

Epimysium wraps around

A

Entire muscle

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18
Q

What part of the muscle helps form the tendon

A

Epimysium

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19
Q

Fascia wraps around

A

Muscle group separating it from neighboring groups

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20
Q

What is a skeletal muscle cell

A

Myofiber

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21
Q

Hyperplasia is

A

Myofibers do not undergo mitosis

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22
Q

The muscles receives how much of blood supply at rest

A

1/4

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23
Q

During exercise, the muscular system receives how much of hearts output of blood

A

3/4

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24
Q

What is the plasma membrane of the cell

A

Sarcolemma

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25
Q

What are T tubules

A

Tiny invaginations of the sarcolemma

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26
Q

Function of T tubules

A

Muscle action potentials travel along the sarcolemma and through the T tubules

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27
Q

What is located in the sarcoplasma of the muscle

A

Nuclei and mitochondria

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28
Q

What is the contractile organelle of skeletal muscle

A

Myofibrils

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29
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

A fluid filled system of membranous sacs

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30
Q

What is the function of sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Storage of Ca2+

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31
Q

Myofibrils are made up of

A

Thick and thin filaments

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32
Q

Thick and thin filaments are made up of

A

Proteins

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33
Q

The thick and thin filaments are arranged in compartments called

A

Sarcomere

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34
Q

What causes the striated appearance of skeletal muscle

A

Pattern of overlap of thick and thin filaments consists of zones and bands

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35
Q

What separates one sarcomere from the next

A

Z discs

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36
Q

What is the dark, middle part of the sarcomere that extends entire length of thick filaments and includes those parts of thin filaments that overlap thick filaments

A

A band

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37
Q

What is the lighter, less dense area in the sarcomere that contains remainder of thing filaments but no thick filaments

A

I band

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38
Q

Narrow region in center of each A band that contains thick filaments but no thin filaments

A

H zone

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39
Q

Region in center of H zone that contains proteins that hold thick filaments together at center of sarcomere

A

M line

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40
Q

Myofibrils are built from three kinds of proteins

A

Contractile, regulatory, structural

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41
Q

What are the contractile proteins

A

Myosin and actin

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42
Q

What are the structural proteins in muscle

A

Titin, myomesin, nebulae, and dystrophin

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43
Q

Function of myosin

A

Pull various cellular structures to achieve movement in all three types of muscles

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44
Q

What are the steps of nerve impulse

A

Release of Ach, activation of Ach receptors, production of muscle action potential, termination of Ach activity

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45
Q

What is myasthenia Travis

A

Autoimmune disease in which Ach receptors are attacked by own immune system

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46
Q

Neurons that stimulate skeletal muscle fibers to contract are called

A

Somatic motor neurons

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47
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction

A

The synapse between a somatic motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber in which the axon terminal coming into close proximity of the muscle fiber

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48
Q

What is synapse

A

A region where communication occurs between two neurons or between a neuron and a target cell

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49
Q

What is a synaptic cleft

A

A small gap separates two cells

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50
Q

How do two cells communicate with each other

A

Neurotransmitter

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51
Q

Axon terminal divides into groups of

A

Synaptic end bulbs

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52
Q

What are synaptic vesicles

A

Membrane enclosed sacs consist of thousands of molecules of Ach

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53
Q

Brief explanation of the contraction cycle

A

ATP hydrolysis, attachment of myosin to actin to form cross bridges, power stroke, detachment of myosin from actin

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54
Q

Even while at rest, a skeletal muscle exhibits muscle tone through

A

Isotonic contraction and isometric contraction

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55
Q

What is an isotonic contraction

A

Tension developed in the muscle remains almost constant while the muscle changes its length (concentric or eccentric)

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56
Q

What is isometric contraction

A

The tension generated is not enough to exceed the resistance of the object to be moved and the muscle does not change in length

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57
Q

What are three main classifications of skeletal muscle fiber

A

Slow oxidative, fast oxidative-glycolytic, fast glycolytic

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58
Q

Characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue

A

Striated, involuntary, uninucleated, branched, autorhythmicity, intercalated discs, desmosomes, gap junctions

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59
Q

Characteristics of smooth muscle tissue

A

Involuntary, non striated, uninucleated, tapered cells

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60
Q

What are the two types of smooth muscle tissue

A

Visceral (single unit) smooth muscle tissue and multi unit smooth muscle tissue

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61
Q

The origin is

A

The less mobile attachment

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62
Q

The insertion is the

A

More mobile end of attachment

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63
Q

Origin is usually

A

Proximal

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64
Q

Insertion is usually

A

Distal

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65
Q

Levers add

A

Speed, distance or force of motion

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66
Q

Lever is usually the

A

Bone

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67
Q

The fulcrum is the

A

Joint

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68
Q

Effort is from

A

The muscle

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69
Q

Resistance load is usually

A

Object moved

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70
Q

Motion occurs when in levers

A

The effort applied to the bone at the insertion exceeds the load

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71
Q

What is mechanical advantage

A

If the load is closer to the fulcrum and the effort farther from the fulcrum, so only small effort is needed to move the load

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72
Q

What is mechanical disadvantage

A

If the load is farther from the fulcrum and the effort is applied closer to the fulcrum, then a large effort is required to move a small load

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73
Q

How to determine mechanical advantage

A

Length of effort arm divided by length of resistance arm

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74
Q

What are the three types of lever systems

A

First class, second class and third class

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75
Q

Describe first class lever

A

Fulcrum is between the effort and the load

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76
Q

Describe second class levers

A

Load is between the fulcrum and the effort

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77
Q

Describe the third class levers

A

Effort is between the load and fulcrum

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78
Q

What is the most common levers in the musculoskeletal system

A

Third class

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79
Q

How are the muscle fibers arranged in a single fascicle

A

Parallel

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80
Q

Fascicular arrangement affects a muscles what

A

Power and range of motion

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81
Q

The longer the fibers in a muscle, the greater what

A

Range of motion it can produce

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82
Q

The power of a muscle depends on

A

A total cross sectional area

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83
Q

Describe parallel muscles

A

Fascicles parallel to longitudinal axis of muscle

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84
Q

Describe fusiform muscle

A

Parallel to longitudinal axis of muscle

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85
Q

Describe circular muscle

A

Form sphincter muscles that enclose an orifice

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86
Q

Describe triangular muscle

A

Formed of broad fibers that converge toward the central tendon

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87
Q

What are the three types of pennate muscle

A

Unipennate, bipennate, multipennate

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88
Q

Describe unipennate muscle

A

Fascicles arranged on only one side of tendon

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89
Q

Describe bipennate muscle

A

Fascicles arranged on both sides of centrally positioned tendons

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90
Q

Describe multipennate muscles

A

Fascicles attach obliquely from many directions to the tendon

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91
Q

For movement to occur what type of muscles must act as a group

A

Agonist, antagonist, synergistic, fixator

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92
Q

Agonist is

A

The main muscles that contracts to cause an action

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93
Q

Antagonist is

A

Muscle that opposes the action of the prime mover

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94
Q

Synergist is

A

The muscles that contract and stabilize the intermediate joints to prevent unwanted movements

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95
Q

Fixator is

A

The muscles that stabilize the origin of the prime mover so that the prim mover can move more efficiently

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96
Q

How are skeletal muscles are named

A

Orientation of fascicles, relative size of muscle, relative shape of muscle, main action of the muscle, number of origins

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97
Q

Muscles of the head that produce facial expressions control

A

The eyelids, mouth and skin of face

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98
Q

The muscles of the head that produce facial expressions does not include

A

Muscles of mastication

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99
Q

Muscles of the head that produce facial expressions lie where

A

Subcutaneous layer

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100
Q

Where do the muscles of the head that produce facial expressions originate from

A

Fascia or bones of the skull and insert into the skin

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101
Q

Muscles of mastication purpose

A

Move the jaw for chewing

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102
Q

Function of the neck muscles

A

Head flexion, extension, lateral flexion, and rotation . Controls movement of hyoid, and larynx and elevates the upper ribs

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103
Q

What are the two organ systems that controls and regulates the body

A

Nervous system and endocrine system

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104
Q

What is a neuron

A

Functional unit of the nervous sytem

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105
Q

What is a neuroglia

A

Supporting cells that protect and support the neurons

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106
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the nervous system

A

Central nervous system and peripheral

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107
Q

The CNS contains

A

The brain and spinal cord

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108
Q

The PNS contains

A

Cranial nerves and spinal nerves

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109
Q

What are ganglia

A

Small masses of nervous tissue consisting of cell bodies of the neurons that are located outside the CNS

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110
Q

What are enteric plexus

A

Networks of neurons located in the walls of the digestive system

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111
Q

What are sensory receptors

A

A structure of nervous tissue monitors changes in the external or internal environment such as touch receptors in the skin

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112
Q

What are the three parts of the peripheral nervous system

A

Somatic nervous system, autonomic nervous system and enteric nervous system

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113
Q

The somatic nervous system consists of what

A

Sensory and motor neurons

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114
Q

What are sensory neurons in SNS

A

Convey info to the CNS from somatic receptors in the head, body, wall and limbs and from receptors for the special senses of vision, hearing, taste and smell

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115
Q

What are motor neurons in SNS

A

Conduct impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles only

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116
Q

Function of sensory neurons in ANS

A

Convey info to the CNS from autonomic receptors, located primarily in visceral organs such as the stomach and lungs

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117
Q

Function of motor neurons in the ANS

A

Conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands.

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118
Q

What are the two branches in the ANS

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

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119
Q

Origin of orbicularis oculi

A

Medial wall of orbit

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120
Q

Insertion of orbicularis oculi

A

Orbital margin

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121
Q

Action of orbicularis oculi

A

Closes the eye

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122
Q

Innervation of orbicularis oculi

A

Facial nerve

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123
Q

Origin of frontal belly occipitofrontalis

A

Epicranial aponeurosis

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124
Q

Insertion of frontal belly of occipitofrontalis

A

Skin superior in supraorbital margin

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125
Q

Action of frontal belly of occipitofrontalis

A

Draws scalp anteriorly and raises eyebrows

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126
Q

Innervation of frontal belly of occipitofrontalis

A

Facial nerve

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127
Q

Origin of occipital belly of occipitofrontalis

A

Occipital bone

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128
Q

Insertion of occipital belly of occipitofrontalis

A

Epicranial aponeurosis

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129
Q

Action of occipital belly of occipitofrontalis

A

Draws scalp posteriorly

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130
Q

Origin of buccinator

A

Alveolar processes of maxilla and mandible

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131
Q

Insertion of buccinator

A

Orbicular oris

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132
Q

Action of buccinator

A

Presses cheeks against teeth and lips

133
Q

Origin of orbiclaris oris

A

Muscle fibers surrounding opening of mouth

134
Q

Insertion of orbicularis oris

A

Skin at corner of mouth

135
Q

Action of orbicularis oris

A

Closes and protrudes lips

136
Q

What are the muscles of mastication

A

Masseter and temporalis

137
Q

Origin of masseter

A

Maxillary and zygomatic arch

138
Q

Insertion of masseter

A

Angle and ramps of mandible

139
Q

Action of masseter

A

Elevates mandible

140
Q

Origin of temporalis

A

Temporal fossa

141
Q

Insertion of temporalis

A

Coronoid process and ramps of mandible

142
Q

Action of temporalis

A

Elevates mandible

143
Q

Muscles of the neck that move the head

A

Sternocleidomastoid and sternohyoid

144
Q

Origin of sternocleidomastoid

A

Manubrium and medial third of clavicle

145
Q

Insertion of sternocleidomastoid

A

Mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line

146
Q

Action of sternocleidomastoid

A

Bilaterally causes flexion, unilaterally causes head to rotate to opposite side of muscle belly

147
Q

Origin of sternohyoid

A

Manubrium and medial end of clavicle

148
Q

Insertion of sternohyoid

A

Body of hyoid bone

149
Q

Action of sternohyoid

A

Lowers hyoid bone

150
Q

Actions of the abdominal muscles include

A

Compressing abdominal contents, flexion, rotation and lateral flexion of the vertebral column

151
Q

Anterolateral abdominal wall is composed of

A

Four pairs of muscles

152
Q

Origin of external oblique

A

Inferior 8 ribs

153
Q

Insertion of external oblique

A

Iliac crest, abdominal aponeurosis to the linea alba

154
Q

Action of external oblique

A

Compresses abdomen, lateral flexion and rotation of vertebral column

155
Q

Origin of rectus abdominus

A

Crest of pubis, pubic symphysis

156
Q

Insertion of rectus abdominus

A

Costal cartilages of 5-7 and xiphoid process

157
Q

Action of rectus abdominus

A

Flexes vertebral column, compresses abdomen

158
Q

Rectus sheath is formed by

A

Aponeurosis of external and internal oblique, transversus abdominis and rectus abdominus

159
Q

The rectus sheath encloses

A

Rectus abdominis muscles

160
Q

What is the linea alba

A

Fibrous band extends from xyphoid process to the pubic symphysis and formed by sheaths at midline

161
Q

Inguinal ligament formed by

A

Aponeurosis of the inferior free border of the external oblique muscle

162
Q

Inhalation occurs when the thoracic cavity

A

Increases in size

163
Q

What are the muscles of respiration

A

Diaphragm, intercostalis

164
Q

What is the prime mover of inspiration

A

Diaphragm

165
Q

What nerve innervates diaphragm

A

Phrenic nerve

166
Q

What are the three major openings in the diaphragm

A

Aortic hiatus, esophageal hiatus, caval opening

167
Q

How many layers of the intercostals muscle

A

Three

168
Q

Action of external intercostals

A

Elevate the ribs during inhalation to expand the thoracic cavity

169
Q

Action of internal intercostals

A

Draw adjacent ribs together during forced exhalation to decrease the size of the thoracic cavity

170
Q

What is used during forceful inhalation

A

Sternocleidomastoid, scalene, pectoralis minor

171
Q

What muscles are used in forceful exhalation

A

External oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis, and internal intercostals

172
Q

Origin of trapezius

A

Superior nuchal line of occipital bone, ligamentum nuchae and SP of C7-T12

173
Q

Insertion of trapezius

A

Clavicle and scapula along spine and acromion

174
Q

Action of trapezius

A

Superior fascicles rotate scapula, middle adults, inferior depresses, assist in head extension

175
Q

Muscles that move the pectoral girdle are classified into two groups

A

Anterior and posterior

176
Q

What are the anterior muscles of the pectoral girdle

A

Subclavius, pectoralis minor and serratus anterior

177
Q

What are the posterior thoracic muscles

A

Trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboid major and rhomboid minor

178
Q

What are the muscles in the rotator cuff

A

Subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor

179
Q

What are the two muscles that originate from the axial skeleton and insert on the humerus

A

Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi

180
Q

How many muscles that move the humerus

A

9

181
Q

Origin of pectoralis major

A

Clavicle, sternum, and costal cartilages of 2-6 ribs

182
Q

Insertion of pectoralis major

A

Greater tubercle of humerus

183
Q

Action of pectoralis major

A

Adults and medially rotates the arm at shoulder joint

184
Q

Origin of deltoid

A

Lateral third of clavicle, acromion, spine of scapula

185
Q

Insertion of deltoid

A

Deltoid tuberosity

186
Q

Action of deltoid

A

Flexes and medially rotates arm, abducts arm, extends and laterally rotates arm

187
Q

Origin of suprapinatus

A

Supraspinous fossa of scapula

188
Q

Insertion of supraspinatus

A

Greater tuberosity of humerus

189
Q

Action of supraspinatus

A

Arm abduction, stabilizes GH joint

190
Q

Innervation of teres major

A

Subscapularis

191
Q

Innervation of latissimus dorsi

A

Thoracodorsal

192
Q

The muscles that causes flexion and extension of forearm are located where

A

Upper arm

193
Q

What are the flexor muscles of the arm

A

Biceps brachii, brachialis, brachioradialis

194
Q

The extensor muscles of the arm

A

Triceps brachii and anconeus

195
Q

Origin of biceps brachii

A

Supraglenoid tubercle, coracoid process of scapula

196
Q

Insertion of biceps brachii

A

Radial tuberosity

197
Q

Action of biceps brachii

A

Flexes forearm at elbow joint, supinate forearm at radioulnar joints, flexes arm at shoulder joint

198
Q

Origin of triceps

A

Infraglenoid tubercle, posterior superior humeral shaft, posterior inferior humeral shaft

199
Q

Insertion of triceps

A

Posterior surface of olecranon process

200
Q

Action of triceps

A

Extends forearm at elbow joint and extends arm at shoulder joint

201
Q

What are the forearm pronators

A

Pronator teres and pronator quadratus

202
Q

Exterinsic muscles of the hand are divided into

A

Anterior and posterior muscles

203
Q

Exterinsic muscles that are anterior are what type of action

A

Flexor

204
Q

Posterior extensor muscles use what action

A

Extend

205
Q

Origin of flexor Carpi radialis

A

Medial epicondyle of humerus

206
Q

Insertion of flexor carpi radialis

A

Second and third metacarpal

207
Q

Action of flexor carpi radialis

A

Flexes and abducts hand at wrist joint

208
Q

Origin of extensor digitorum

A

Lateral epicondyle of humerus

209
Q

Insertion of extensor digitorum

A

Lateral and dorsal surfaces of phalanges of digits

210
Q

Action of extensor digitorum

A

Extend the fingers and wrist

211
Q

Intrinsic muscles of the hand produce

A

Weak but precise movements of the digits

212
Q

What are the three groups of the intrinsic muscles of the hand

A

Thenar muscles, hypothenar muscles, and intermediate muscles

213
Q

The ENS has both

A

Sensory and motor components

214
Q

Nervous tissue has two type of cells called

A

Neurons and neuroglia

215
Q

Can neurons undergo mitotic division

A

No due to being highly specialized cells

216
Q

What are the three parts of a neuron

A

Cell body, dendrites, axon

217
Q

Dendrite function

A

Receive information

218
Q

What is the axon hillock

A

Closest part of axon to cell body

219
Q

What is the initial segment in an axon

A

Closest to axon hillock

220
Q

What is the trigger zone in axon

A

Junction area between axon hillock and initial segment and where nerve impulses arise

221
Q

Axoplasm is

A

Cytoplasm in axon

222
Q

What is axolemma

A

Plasma membrane of axon

223
Q

What are synapses

A

Region where communication occurs between two neurons or between a neuron and an effector cell

224
Q

If a neuron receptor binds with Na+ channels what occurs

A

Depolarization (excitability)

225
Q

If neuron receptor binds with Cl- or K+ then what occurs

A

Hyperpolarization (inhibition)

226
Q

Presynaptic neuron

A

Cell that sends a signal towards synapse

227
Q

Postsynaptic neuron

A

Cell that receives a signal and carries at away

228
Q

Axodendritic

A

Most common synapses between axon and dendrite

229
Q

Axosomatic

A

Synapse between axon an cell body

230
Q

Axoaxonic

A

Synapse between two axons

231
Q

What is an electrical synapse

A

Action potentials conduct directly between plasma membranes of adjacent neurons through gap junctions

232
Q

Advantage to electrical synapse

A

Faster communication and synchronization

233
Q

What is a chemical synapse

A

Presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are separated by the synaptic cleft, nerve impulses conduct by neurotransmitter

234
Q

What are neurotoxins

A

Block action potentials by inserting themselves into voltage gated Na+ channels so they cannot open

235
Q

Function of local anesthetic

A

Blocking the opening of voltage gated Na+ channels

236
Q

What are the neuroglia in the CNS

A

Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia cells, ependymal cells

237
Q

What are the neuroglia in the PNS

A

Schwann cells, and satellite cells

238
Q

Function of astrocyte

A

Help the endothelial cells to create a BBB, most numerous

239
Q

Function of oligodendrocytes

A

Forming and maintaining the myelin sheath around CNS axons

240
Q

Function of microglia cells

A

Phagocytes

241
Q

Myelin is composed of

A

Mostly lipids (phospholipids, glycolipids, cholesterol) and protein

242
Q

When do Schwann cells begin developing myelin around axons

A

During fetal development

243
Q

What are the nodes of ranvier

A

Gaps in between myelin sheath, AP jumps between these

244
Q

What is white matter

A

Aggregations of myelinated and unmyelinated axons of many neurons

245
Q

What is the gray matter of the nervous system

A

Contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon terminals, and neuroglia

246
Q

Speed of signal conduction depends on what

A

Diameter of fiber (larger is faster) and presence of myelin (more is faster)

247
Q

What are simple series circuit

A

A presynaptic neuron stimulates a single postsynaptic neuron. The second neuron then stimulates another.

248
Q

What a diverging neural circuit

A

A single presynaptic neuron may synapse with several postsynaptic neurons

249
Q

What is a converging neural circuit

A

Several presynaptic neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron

250
Q

What is a reverberating neural circuit

A

The incoming impulse stimulates the first neuron, then the second, the third and so on. Branches from the last neurons synapse with earlier ones.

251
Q

Parallel after discharge neural circuits

A

Single presynaptic cell stimulates a group of neurons, each of which synapse with a common postsynaptic cell.

252
Q

function of ependymal cells

A

produce CSF

253
Q

function of schwann cells

A

myelinate axon and help participate in axon regeneration

254
Q

function of satelite cells

A

regulate the exchanges of materials between neuronal cell bodies and interstitial fluid

255
Q

What is the site for integration of neuronal stimulation

A

Spinal cord

256
Q

What relays sensory nerve impulses

A

Spinal cord

257
Q

what are the protective structures of the spinal cord

A

dura matter, arachnoid matter and pia matter

258
Q

what provides the main protection to the spinal cord

A

vertebral column

259
Q

what provides additional protection to the spinal cord

A

meninges, vertebral ligaments, and CSF

260
Q

the meninges are made of

A

connective tissue

261
Q

dura matter is made of

A

dense irregular tissue, tough

262
Q

is arachnoid matter vacularized

A

no

263
Q

where is the subarachnoid space located

A

arachnoid and pia matter

264
Q

arachnoid matter is made of

A

collagen and elastin fibers

265
Q

what meninges adheres to the surface of the spinal cord and brain

A

pia matter

266
Q

the spinal cord extends from

A

medulla oblongata to the superior border of L2

267
Q

newborn spinal extends from

A

medulla oblongata to superior border of L4

268
Q

length of avg adult spinal cord

A

42 to 45 cm

269
Q

where are the enlargements of the spinal cord

A

C4-T1 and T9-T12

270
Q

what is the conus medullaris

A

tapering end of the spinal cord inferior to the lumbar enlargement

271
Q

what is the filum terminale

A

extension of the pia matter that extends inferiorly, fuses with arachnoid and dura matter, ancors the spinal cord to the coccyx

272
Q

how many cervical nerves

A

8

273
Q

how many thoracic nerves

A

12

274
Q

how many lumbar nerves

A

5

275
Q

how many sacral nerves

A

5

276
Q

how many coccygeal nerves

A

1

277
Q

what connect each spinal nerve to a segment of the cord by rootlets

A

roots and two bundles of axons

278
Q

function of posterior (dorsal) root

A

conduct nerve impulses from sensory receptors into the CNS

279
Q

function posterior (dorsal) root ganglion

A

contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons

280
Q

function of anterior (ventral) root

A

contain axons of motor neurons which conduct nerve impulses from CNS to effectors

281
Q

what is the cauda equina

A

formed by roots of the lumbar, sacral an coccygeal nerves around the filum terminale

282
Q

white matter is what layer of the spinal cord

A

outer layer

283
Q

gray matter is what layer of the spinal cord

A

inner layer

284
Q

white matter in the spinal cord consists of

A

myelinated axons of neurons

285
Q

what two grooves divide white matter into right and left sides

A

anterior median fissure and posterior median sulcus

286
Q

gray matter divides the white matter into what three columns

A

anterior (ventral) white columns, posterior (dorsal) white column, lateral white columns

287
Q

gray matter consists of

A

dendrites, cell bodies of neurons, unmyelinated axons and neuroglia

288
Q

what forms the H of the gray matter

A

gray commissure

289
Q

spinal nerves connect the CNS to

A

sensory receptors, muscles and glands in all parts of the body

290
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves

A

31

291
Q

the spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord through

A

posterior root and anterior root

292
Q

the nerves above C7 exit where

A

above vertebrae

293
Q

the nerves below C7 exit where

A

below vertebrae

294
Q

what is the endoneurium

A

wraps individual axons within a nerve

295
Q

what is the perineurium

A

wrapped around groups of axons into fascicles

296
Q

what is the epineurium

A

outmost covering over the entire nerve

297
Q

when the spinal nerve passes through IVF it divides into how many branches

A

4 rami

298
Q

function of posterior (dorsal) ramus

A

supplies muscles and skin of the back

299
Q

function of anterior (ventral) ramus

A

supplies muscles and structures of the upper and lower limbs and the skin of the lateral and anterior surfaces of the trunk

300
Q

function of meningeal branch

A

reenters the vertebral cavity to supply the structures within the cavity

301
Q

function of communicants

A

white and gray ramus which contains pre and postganglionic axons

302
Q

plexuses are formed by

A

the anterior rami of spinal nerves

303
Q

what are the principal plexus

A

cervical, brachial, lumbar and sacral

304
Q

the cervical plexus is formed by

A

the anterior rami of the first four cervical nerves

305
Q

cervical plexus supplies what

A

skin and muscles of the head, neck and superior part of the shoulders and chest

306
Q

the lesser occipital nerve C2 supplies

A

skin of the scalp posterior and superior to ear

307
Q

greater auricular nerve (c2 and C3) supplies

A

skin anterior, inferior, and over ear and over parotid gland

308
Q

transverse cervical (C2,C3) supplies

A

skin over anterior and lateral aspect of neck

309
Q

supraclavicular (C3 and C4) supplies

A

skin over superior portion of chest and shoulder

310
Q

brachial plexus basically innervates

A

the entire shoulder and upper limb

311
Q

the brachial plexus is formed by

A

the anterior rami of spinal nerves (C5, C8 and T1)

312
Q

what are the five large terminal branches of the brachial plexus

A

axillary, musculocutaneous, radial, median, and ulnar

313
Q

axillary nerve innervates

A

deltoid and teres minor

314
Q

musculocutaneous innervates

A

anterior muscles of the arm

315
Q

radial nerve innervates

A

posterior aspect of the arm and forearm muscles

316
Q

median nerve innervates

A

muscles of the anterior forearm and some of the hand

317
Q

ulnar nerve innervates

A

anteromedial muscles of the forearm and most of the muscles of the hand.

318
Q

what are the main branches of the lumbar plexus

A

femoral and obturator

319
Q

lumbar plexus formed by

A

anterior rami of spinal nerves L1-L4

320
Q

femoral nerve supplies

A

flexor muscles of hip joint and extensor muscles of knee joint, skin over anterior and medial aspect of thigh and medial side of leg and foot

321
Q

obturator nerve supplies

A

adductor muscles of hip joint, skin over medial aspect of thigh

322
Q

lumbosacral trunk is the branch that connects

A

lumbar spinal nerves to sacral plexus

323
Q

sacral plexus formed by

A

anterior rami of spinal nerves L4,L5 and S1, S4

324
Q

sciatic nerve innervates

A

hamstrings

325
Q

sciatic nerve splits into

A

common fibular and tibial nerve

326
Q

coccygeal plexus is formed by

A

S4, S5 and coccygeal nerves

327
Q

cause of sciatica

A

irritation of the cord, lumbar spinal stenosis, disc degeneration, herniation, spondylolisthesis, piriformis syndrome

328
Q

what are dermatomes

A

areas of the skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via one pair of spinal nerves

329
Q

gray matter function

A

receives and integrates incoming and outgoing information

Systemic (3 decks)

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