CompTIA A+ Flashcards

Question

What port does IPSec use?

Answer 1

Ports 500, 4500 (UDP)

Answer 2

Port 3306 (TCP)

Answer 3

Port 5432 (TCP)

Answer 4

Port 1433 (TCP)

Answer 5

No, it uses TCP for zone transfers.

Answer 6

No, only TCP.

Answer 7

SFTP uses SSH; FTPS uses SSL/TLS

Answer 8

Connects multiple networks and routes packets based on IP addresses (Layer 3).

Answer 9

Connects devices within the same LAN, forwards data based on MAC addresses (Layer 2).

Answer 10

Sends data to all ports; no intelligence (Layer 1). Causes network collisions.

Answer 11

Divides LANs into segments; filters traffic using MAC addresses.

Answer 12

Converts digital to analog (and vice verse) for internet over phone/cable lines.

Answer 13

Filters network traffic using security rules (Layer 3-7)

Answer 14

Provides wireless connectivity for Wi-Fi devices.

Answer 15

Regenerates and amplifies a weak signal.

Answer 16

Translates data between different network protocols.

Answer 17

Acts as an intermediary between client and internet, caching or filtering data.

Answer 18

Manages and encrypts VPN connections

Answer 19

Network-Attached Storage; allows file sharing across a network.

Answer 20

Combines multiple security features like firewall, antivirus, and IDS/IPS

Answer 21

Monitors traffic and alerts on suspicious activity.

Answer 22

Monitors and actively blocks malicious traffic.

Answer 23

Supports up to 1 Gbps, 100 MHz.

Answer 24

Supports up to 10 Gbps, 250 MHz, up to 55m

Answer 25

Supports 10 Gbps up to 100m

Answer 26

Shielded, supports 10+ Gbps, 600 MHz

Answer 27

Uses light for data, immune to EMI.

Answer 28

Single-mode = long distance (laser), Multimode = short distance (LED).

Answer 29

Cable internet, CCTV, antennas

Answer 30

SC, ST, LC

Answer 31

Crimper, punch-down tool, cable tester, tone generator, loopback plug.

Answer 32

10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255; 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255; 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255

Answer 33

255.255.255.0

Answer 34

Automatically assigns IP addresses

Answer 35

Resolves domain names to IP addresses

Answer 36

Converts private IPs to public for internet access.

Answer 37

IPv4 = 32-bit addresses; IPv6 = 128-bit addresses

Answer 38

The router that connects a device to another network (e.g., Internet).

Answer 39

127.0.0.1 - used for testing network stack.

Answer 40

Displays IP configuration (Windows)

Answer 41

Tests connectivity between two hosts

Answer 42

Shows the path packets take to a destination

Answer 43

Looks up DNS information

Answer 44

Displays active network connections

Answer 45

Connects to shared resources

Answer 46

Displays or creates shared folders.

Answer 47

Tests a network port's transmit/receive capability.

Answer 48

Locates cables and verifies continuity

Answer 49

Tests voltage, current, and cable continuity.

Answer 50

Captures and analyses network traffic packets.

Answer 51

Software-Defined Networking.

Answer 52

To separate the control plane from the data plane, allowing network control to be managed by software instead of hardware.

Answer 53

The part of a network device (like a router or switch) that makes decisions about where traffic is sent (the "brain").

Answer 54

The part that actually moves packets based on instructions from the control plane (the "hands").

Answer 55

It's moved to central controller - a software-based system that manages multiple devices.

Answer 56

The centralised software brain that communicates with all network devices and decides how they should handle traffic.

Answer 57

OpenFlow (a common SDN communication protocol).

Answer 58

Centralised control, flexibility, automation, and easier network management.

Answer 59

Traditional networking configures each device manually; SDN configures them centrally through software.

Answer 60

Cloud computing, data centers, virtual networks, and network automation.

Answer 61

Creating multiple virtual networks on the same physical hardware (like multiple VLANs but more advanced).

Answer 62

The process of automatically coordinating network devices and services through SDN software.

Answer 63

Faster deployment, easier scalability, improved security policies, and reduced manual errorss.

Answer 64

Primarily Layer 3 (Network) but can influence Layers 2-7 through its software control

Answer 65

IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) - specifically 802.11.

Answer 66

The family of standards that define wireless LAN (WLAN) networking.

Answer 67

2.4 GHz and 5 GHz (and 6 GHz for Wi-Fi 6E / 7).

Answer 68

Frequency - higher GHz = faster potential speed, shorter range.

Answer 69

a, b, g, n, ac, ax, be.

Answer 70

2.4 GHz and/or 5 GHz (dual band).

Answer 71

MIMO (Multiple Input, Multiple Output) for higher speeds.

Answer 72

Up to 600 Mbps

Answer 73

5 GHz only

Answer 74

MU-MIMO (Multi-User MIMO) and wider channels.

Answer 75

Up to 1.3 Gbps or more

Answer 76

2.4 GHz and 5 GHz (and 6 GHz for Wi-Fi 6E)

Answer 77

Up to 10 Gbps+

Answer 78

OFDMA (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access) for efficiency and less latency

Answer 79

The upcoming standard using 2.4/5/6 GHz, speeds up to 30 Gbps+, and advanced efficiency.

Answer 80

It's Wi-Fi 6 extended to the 6 GHz band for more channels and less interference.

Answer 81

Service Set Identifier - the name of a wireless network

Answer 82

The MAC address of a specific access point

Answer 83

Around 45 m indoors / 90 m outdoors.

Answer 84

Around 30 m indoors

Answer 85

Bluetooth devices, microwaves, cordless phones.

Answer 86

Channels 1, 6, 11

Answer 87

WEP (weak), WPA, WPA2, WPA3 (strongest).

Answer 88

Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Accesss.

Answer 89

802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6).

Answer 90

To increase efficiency by allowing multiple users to transmit data simultaneously on different sub-channels within the same Wi-Fi channel.

Answer 91

OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing) divides a channel into subcarriers for one user at a time. OFDMA extends this by letting multiple users share those subcarriers at once.

Answer 92

Less latency, better performance in crowded environments (like offices, schools, or apartments).

Answer 93

Both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz (and 6 GHz in Wi-Fi 6E)

Answer 94

The access point schedules which sub-channels each client can use - improving coordination and reducing collisions.

Answer 95

Internet Protocol

Answer 96

To provide logical addressing and routing for network communication

Answer 97

About 4.3 billion (2³²)

Answer 98

About 3.4 × 10³⁸ (2¹²⁸) - practically unlimited

Answer 99

Decimal numbers separated by dots

Answer 100

Hexadecimal numbers separated by colons

Answer 101

You can remove leading zeros and replace consecutive groups of zeros with :: (only once per address)

Answer 102

Yes - to extend limited address space.

Answer 103

No - it has a vast address space for every device

Answer 104

IPv4 supports broadcast traffic

Answer 105

Multicast and anycast (IPv6 does not use broadcast)

Answer 106

IPv6 supports SLAAC (Stateless Address Auto Configuration)

Answer 107

NDP (Neighbour Discovery Protocol) replaces ARP from IPv4

Answer 108

Depends on the class (A, B, C)

Answer 109

Prefix length notation (e.g., /64)

Answer 110

IPv6 (built-in), while IPv4 uses it optionally

Answer 111

IPv4 = 12 fields, IPv6 = 8 simpler fields.

Answer 112

Dual stack, tunneling, translation between IPv4 and IPv6 networks

Answer 113

Because many networks still use IPv4 while newer systems use IPv6 - both must communicate during the transition period.

Answer 114

Dual Stack, Tunneling, and Translation

Answer 115

A method where a device runs both IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously, handling whichever version the other device supports.

Answer 116

Most flexible and efficient - full support for both protocols without conversion overhead.

Answer 117

Encapsulating IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to send them across an IPv4 network.

Answer 118

6to4, ISATAP, or Teredo

Answer 119

When IPv6 networks are separated by an IPv4-only network in between.

Answer 120

Converting IPv6 packets to IPv4 (and vice versa) so that IPv4-only and IPv6-only hosts can communicate.

Answer 121

NAT64/DNS64 (Network Address Translation 64)

Answer 122

Can cause loss of functionality and increased latency because of protocol conversion

Answer 123

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

Answer 124

To automatically assign IP addresses and other network settings (like subnet mask, gateway, DNS) to devices.

Answer 125

Dynamic addressing - IPs are leased to devices temporarily.

Answer 126

Static (manually set) and Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)

Answer 127

169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255 (used when DHCP fails).

Answer 128

Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge.

Answer 129

It's the 4-step handshake used by DHCP to assign an IP address to a client.

Answer 130

The client broadcasts a DHCP Discover message to find available DHCP servers.

Answer 131

A DHCP server responds with an Offer, proposing an IP address and configuration

Answer 132

The client requests to use the offered IP address

Answer 133

The DHCP server acknowledges and confirms the IP lease - assignment complete

Answer 134

UDP 67 (server) and UDP 68 (client)

Answer 135

The device self-assigns an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) and can only communicate locally.

Answer 136

Depends on network settings - usually 24 hours or more

Answer 137

To assign a specific IP address to a device based on its MAC address (ensures the same IP every time).

Answer 138

A manually configured IP that doesn't change, often used for servers or printers.

Answer 139

Forwards DHCP requests from clients in other subnets to the central DHCP server.

Answer 140

Static, Dynamic (DHCP), and Automatic (APIPA)

Answer 141

An IP manually assigned to a device that never changes

Answer 142

For servers, printers, routers, or network devices that need consistent addresses.

Answer 143

Predictable, reliable for hosting or remote access.

Answer 144

Must be configured manually, risk of human error, and no automatic updates

Answer 145

An IP assigned automatically by a DHCP server and leased temporarily

Answer 146

Easy to manage, no manual setup, reduces address conflicts.

Answer 147

IPs can change, so not ideal for servers that need a fixed address.

Answer 148

Automatic Private IP Addressomg

Answer 149

When a device fails to reach a DHCP server, it self-assigns a local IP.

Answer 150

169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255

Answer 151

No - they can only communicate locally with other APIPA devices.

Answer 152

Provides limited local connectivity even if DHCP is unavailable.

Answer 153

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) checks if the IP is already in use

Answer 154

Domain Name System

Answer 155

To translate domain names (like google.com) into IP addresses that computers understand.

Answer 156

Hostname > IP address.

Answer 157

Reverse lookup - resolves IP > hostname.

Answer 158

UDP port 53 (and TCP 53 for larger queries).

Answer 159

A server that stores and manages records mapping domain names to IP addresses.

Answer 160

A device that queries DNS servers to resolve domain names.

Answer 161

The hosts file (located in /etc/hosts on Linux/macOS or C:\Windows\System32\drivers\etc\hosts on Windows).

Answer 162

A DNS zone that maps hostnames to IP addresses.

Answer 163

A DNS zone that maps IP addresses to hostnames.

Answer 164

A data entry in DNS that defines a mapping or configuration for a domain

Answer 165

Maps a hostname to an IPv4 address.

Answer 166

Maps a hostname to an IPv6 address.

Answer 167

Maps a domain alias to another domain name (e.g., mail.example.com > example.com)

Answer 168

Specifies the mail exchange server for email routing.

Answer 169

Identifies the authoritative name servers for the domain.

Answer 170

Used in reverse lookups - maps an IP address to a hostname.

Answer 171

Information about the start of authority - the main DNS server for the zone and version data.

Answer 172

The temporary storage of resolved DNS queries to improve performance and reduce network traffic.

Answer 173

nslookup or ping [hostname]

Answer 174

dig, nslookup, or host

Answer 175

A service that automatically updates DNS records when a device's IP changes

Answer 176

Forwards DNS requests from local clients to an external DNS server (e.g., Google's 8.8.8.8).

Answer 177

Google: 8.8.8.8 / 8.8.4.4, Cloudflare: 1.1.1.1, OpenDNS: 208.67.222.222 / 208.67.220.220.

Answer 178

Starts at the root servers, goes to TLD servers (e.g., .com, .org), then to authoritative servers for the specific domain.

Answer 179

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol.

Answer 180

To automatically assign IP addresses and network settings (like subnet mask, gateway, DNS) to clients.

Answer 181

UDP 67 (server) and UDP 68 (client)

Answer 182

Dynamic addressing - IPs are leased for a specific time.

Answer 183

The range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can assign to clients

Answer 184

Subnet mask, default gateway, DNS servers, domain name, lease duration, and WINS servers.

Answer 185

The temporary assignment of an IP address to a device for a set time.

Answer 186

The client must renew the lease or receive a new IP address.

Answer 187

A specific IP address permanently assigned to a device's MAC address (ensures the same IP every time)

Answer 188

For servers, printers, routers, or VoIP phones that need fixed IPs.

Answer 189

IP addresses within the scope that the DHCP will not assign - usually for static IPs.

Answer 190

A device that forwards DHCP requests between subnets when the DHCP server is on a different network.

Answer 191

To allow centralised DHCP management across multiple subnets

Answer 192

BOOTP (Bootstrap Protocol) or DHCP forwarding mechanisms

Answer 193

Discover > Offer > Request > Acknowledge.

Answer 194

The client broadcasts to find available DHCP servers.

Answer 195

The server offers an available IP and configuration

Answer 196

The client requests to use the offered IP.

Answer 197

The server confirms the lease - configuration complete

Answer 198

The device uses APIPA (169.254.x.x) for local-only communication.

Answer 199

Simplifies IP management, reduces configuration errors, and saves admin time.

Answer 200

Devices may change IPs, and if the DHCP server fails, new devices can't join until it's restored.

Answer 201

ipconfig /renew

Answer 202

ipconfig /release

Answer 203

ipconfig /all

Answer 204

Virtual Local Area Network

Answer 205

Virtual Private Network

Answer 206

To logically segment a physical network in to smaller, isolated broadcast domains

Answer 207

To securely connect remote users or sites over an untrusted (public) network like the Internet.

Answer 208

Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)

Answer 209

Layer 3 (Network Layer) or above

Answer 210

A managed switch.

Answer 211

A VPN server, router, or firewall.

Answer 212

They are on different broadcast domains and need a router or Layer 3 switch to communicate.

Answer 213

It isolates traffic between departments or device groups (e.g., HR, IT, Guests).

Answer 214

It encrypts traffic between endpoints, preventing eavesdropping and data theft.

Answer 215

IEEE 802.1Q.

Answer 216

Adding a VLAN ID to Ethernet frames so devices know which VLAN the traffic belongs to.

Answer 217

A switch port that carries traffic from multiple VLANs using tags.

Answer 218

A switch port assigned to a single VLAN (untagged traffic).

Answer 219

1 (default), 10, 20, 30, etc. - ID range is 1-4094.

Answer 220

An encrypted pathway between two endpoints over the Internet.

Answer 221

Site-to-site: connects whole networks. Remote-access: connects individual users to a network.

Answer 222

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

Answer 223

PPTP, L2TP, SSTP, IKEv2, and OpenVPN.

Answer 224

Secure communication over public networks and remote access to private resources.

Answer 225

Yes. VLANs segment traffic internally; VPNs secure traffic externally.

Answer 226

show vlan brief

Answer 227

rasdial or check via Network Connections > VPN

Answer 228

DSL, Cable, Fiber, Satellite, Cellular, Dial-up, and ISDN.

Answer 229

Digital Subscriber Line

Answer 230

Telephone lines (copper).

Answer 231

Yes. DSL uses different frequencies for data and voice.

Answer 232

Up to around 100 Mbps download, depending distance and provider

Answer 233

Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line - faster download, slower upload.

Answer 234

Symmetric DSL - equal upload and downloads speeds often for businesses.

Answer 235

Coaxial cable (same as cable TV).

Answer 236

100 Mbps to 1 Gbps or higher.

Answer 237

DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Interface Specification)

Answer 238

Glass or plastic fiber-optic cables using light signals.

Answer 239

Extremely high speed (up to multiple Gbps) and low latency

Answer 240

Limited availability and higher installation cost

Answer 241

Microwave radio signals to satellites in orbit.

Answer 242

Works in remote or rural areas where wired service isn't available

Answer 243

High latency and weather interference.

Answer 244

Mobile networks (3G, 4G LTE, 5G) for Internet access.

Answer 245

Mobility and flexibility - can work almost anywhere with cell coverage.

Answer 246

Data caps, variable speeds, and signal strength limitations.

Answer 247

A connection that uses traditional phone lines and modems to dial an ISP.

Answer 248

Around 56 Kbps - very slow by modern standards.

Answer 249

Integrated Services Digital Network.

Answer 250

Both use phone lines, but ISDN is older, slower, and uses digital signaling over circuit-switched connections

Answer 251

Sharing a cellular data connection from a smartphone to other devices via Wi-Fi or USB

Answer 252

Uses wireless radio or microwave antennas between two fixed points (used in rural or business links).

Answer 253

Any high-speed Internet that's always on, including DSL, cable, fiber, and cellular.

Answer 254

Local Area Network - connects devices within a limited area (e.g., office, home, campus).

Answer 255

High speed, low latency, privately owned.

Answer 256

Wireless Local Area Network - a LAN using Wi-Fi instead of cables.

Answer 257

A Wireless Access Point (WAP).

Answer 258

Wide Area Network - connects multiple LANs over large geographic areas.

Answer 259

Telecommunications providers or ISPs.

Answer 260

The Internet or a corporate network linking branch offices.

Answer 261

Metropolitan Area Network - spans a city or large campus, connecting multiple LANs.

Answer 262

City-wide Wi-Fi or university campus network.

Answer 263

Personal Area Network - connects devices close to one person (within ~10 meters).

Answer 264

Bluetooth, smartphones, smartwatches, wireless headsets.

Answer 265

Storage Area Network - connects servers to shared storage devices (like RAID arrays).

Answer 266

Provides high-speed, block-level access to data storage for enterprise servers.

Answer 267

Campus Area Network - a network connecting multiple LANs in a university, business park, or military base.

Answer 268

A private internal network used by an organisation

Answer 269

A restricted external network that allows partners or vendors limited access to the intranet

Answer 270

The global network of interconnected WANs and LANs using TCP/IP

Answer 271

A network where each device acts both client and server, sharing files directly.

Answer 272

A network where clients request resources from a central server that manages data and access.

Answer 273

LAN or WLAN using a router to connect to the the Internet.

Answer 274

WAN (often using leased lines or VPNs)

Answer 275

WAN technology such as MPLS or Metro Ethernet.

Answer 276

A network hosted and managed remotley via Internet-based services (IaaS, SaaS, etc.)

Answer 277

To attach connectors (like RJ45) to network cables by pressing metal pins into the wires

Answer 278

Terminating Ethernet cables (Cat5e/Cat6) for network connections

Answer 279

Connecting telephone lines (DSL or analog phones)

Answer 280

Testing network interfaces by sending signals back to the same device - helps verify NIC or port functionality.

Answer 281

To connect wires into patch panels or keystone jacks on structured cabling systems

Answer 282

Checks for correct wiring, continuity, and shorts in network cables.

Answer 283

Sends a tone through a cable, and the probe detects it - used to trace cables through walls or racks.

Answer 284

Measures voltage, resistance, and continuity - helps detect bad cables or faulty power.

Answer 285

Tests copper cables to detect breaks, shorts, or distance to faults.

Answer 286

Tests fiber optic cables for breaks, signal loss, or connector quality.

Answer 287

Scans wireless networks for signal strength, interference, and channel usage.

Answer 288

Captures and analyses network traffic packets (e.g., Wireshark).

Answer 289

Measures network performance, detects bottlenecks and tests throughput.

Answer 290

A panel (e.g., 110 block) where twisted-pair cables are terminated in structured cabling.

Answer 291

A central termination point that connects incoming cables to network equipment with patch cords.

Answer 292

Verifies that a cable meets performance standards (Cat5e, Cat6, etc.) - used for professional installations.

Answer 293

Converts one type of media to another (e.g., fiber to Ethernet).

Answer 294

A handheld device used by technicians to test and monitor telephone lines.

Answer 295

Identifies cable pairs and keeps the panel organised and traceable

Answer 296

A plug that loops outgoing signals back into the port - used for NIC testing (especially in laptops or servers).

Answer 297

Removes insulation from cables before crimping connectors.

Answer 298

Checks if Power over Ethernet is being correctly supplied to a device.

Answer 299

OTDR, light meter, or visual fault locator (VFL)

Answer 300

Wi-Fi analyzer or spectrum analyzer.

Answer 301

Multimeter or cable tester

Answer 302

Twisted-pair (copper), Coaxial, and Fiber-optic

Answer 303

Unshielded Twisted Pair.

Answer 304

Shielded Twisted Pair

Answer 305

STP has metal shielding to protect against EMI; UTP does not.

Answer 306

RJ45 (8P8C) connector.

Answer 307

100 meters

Answer 308

Up to 100 Mbps (Fast Ethernet)

Answer 309

Up to 1 Gbps (Gigabit Ethernet)

Answer 310

Up to 10 Gbps over 55 meters

Answer 311

10 Gbps up to 100 meters with improved shielding.

Answer 312

10 Gbps+, fully shielded, often uses GG45 or Tera connectors

Answer 313

Data centres - supports 25 to 40 Gbps up to 30 meters

Answer 314

Cable with a fire-resistant jacket for use in air ducts or ceilings.

Answer 315

Standard cable not fire-resistant; cheaper but not for plenum use.

Answer 316

Connects similar devices (e.g., PC to PC, switch to switch) - Tx and Rx pairs are swapped.

Answer 317

Connects different devices (e.g., PC to switch, router to modem).

Answer 318

A short, flexible cable used to connect devices within racks or patch panels.

Answer 319

T568A and T568B

Answer 320

The green and orange pairs are swapped.

Answer 321

1) Orange/White, 2) Orange, 3) Green/White, 4) Blue, 5) Blue/White, 6) Green, 7) Brown/White, 8) Brown.

Answer 322

Coaxial cable (RG-6 or RG-59)

Answer 323

F-type or BNC connector

Answer 324

Cable TV and broadband Internet

Answer 325

Short-distance video or older CCTV systems

Answer 326

RG-6 has thicker insulation and lower signal loss.

Answer 327

Single-mode fiber (SMF) and Multi-mode fiber (MMF)

Answer 328

Yellow jacket

Answer 329

Orange or aqua jacket

Answer 330

Around 9 microns

Answer 331

50 or 62.5 microns

Answer 332

Up to tens of kilometres (long distance)

Answer 333

Typically up to 2 km, depending on speed.

Answer 334

LC, SC, ST, and MTRJ

Answer 335

Lucent Connector - small form factor, common modern networks

Answer 336

Subscriber Connector - push-pull design

Answer 337

Straight Tip - bayonet-style twist lock.

Answer 338

Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack - duplex fiber connector with both fibers in one plug.

Answer 339

Longer distance, higher bandwidth, immune to EMI.

Answer 340

Expensive and fragile - requires special handling

Answer 341

Plenum (CMP): fire-resistant for air spaces. Riser (CMR): fire-resistant for vertical shafts but not air ducts.

Answer 342

A Cisco console cable - connects a PC to a router's console port (RJ45 <> DB9).

Answer 343

Delivers power and data over one Ethernet cable to devices like IP cameras or access points.

Answer 344

LED (Light-Emitting Diode)

Answer 345

Single-mode fiber (SMF).

Answer 346

Multi-mode fiber (MMF).

Answer 347

Up to tens of kilometres (often 40-80 km or more)

Answer 348

Around 600 meters to 2 kilometres, depending on the speed.

Answer 349

Modal dispersion - multiple light paths arriving at different times.

Answer 350

Because it carries a single light path (mode) straight through.

Answer 351

Higher bandwidth, longer distance, and immunity to EMI.

Answer 352

Core, cladding, buffer, and jacket.

Answer 353

The reflective layer that keeps light signals inside the core via total internal reflection.

Answer 354

The principle that keeps light bouncing within the core without escaping.

Answer 355

Common fiber-optic connector types.

Answer 356

Lucent Connector - small, square, push-pull style. Common in modern networks.

Answer 357

Subscriber Connector - larger push-pull connector, square-shaped.

Answer 358

Fiber that uses two strands - one for transmit (Tx), one for receive (Rx).

Answer 359

One-way communication - only one strand used.

Answer 360

Long-distance connections like ISPs, backbones, and inter-building links.

Answer 361

Short-range connections like LANs and data centres.

Answer 362

Small Form-factor Pluggable transceiver - converts electrical to optical signals for network devices.

Answer 363

Higher-speed fiber connections - SFP+ (10 Gbps), QSFP (40-100 Gbps).

Answer 364

A device that both transmits and receives light signals in fiber communication.

Answer 365

To test fiber length, faults, and signal loss along the cable.

Answer 366

A Visual Fault Locator (VFL) - sends visible red light through fiber.

Answer 367

Signal loss over distance - measured in decibels (dB)

Answer 368

Connector loss, splices, bends, or dirty ends.

Answer 369

Dust and oil can cause major signal loss or reflection issues.

Answer 370

Never look directly into the fiber ends - invisible laser light can cause eye damage

Answer 371

The minimum curvature a fiber cable can have without causing signal loss.

Answer 372

Physical protection from stress, moisture, and environment.

Answer 373

Fiber with a fire-retardant jacket suitable for air-handling spaces.

Answer 374

Fiber rated for vertical runs between floors (not for air ducts)

Answer 375

Any external device that connects to and works with a computer

Answer 376

To connect input/output devices to the system unit for data transfer or power

Answer 377

Universal Serial Bus

Answer 378

USB Type-A / Type-C

Answer 379

USB 1.1 (12 Mbps), USB 2.0 (480 Mbps), USB 3.0 (5 Gbps), USB 3.1 (10 Gbps), USB 3.2 (20 Gbps), USB4 (40 Gbps).

Answer 380

Blue or Teal

Answer 381

The standard rectangular connector found on computers

Answer 382

The square connector often used for printers or scanners.

Answer 383

Older phones, cameras, and external drives.

Answer 384

Reversible, supports power + data + video, used in modern devices.

Answer 385

Originally Mini DisplayPort, now USB Type-C

Answer 386

Up to 40 Gbps

Answer 387

Video and audio from PC to monitor.

Answer 388

High-definition video and audio connection (TVs, monitors, projectors).

Answer 389

Standard (Type A), Mini (Type C), and Micro (Type D).

Answer 390

Digital Visual Interface (used for monitors)

Answer 391

DVI-D = digital only, DVI-A = analog only, DVI-I = both digital and analog.

Answer 392

Video Graphics Array - analog video connector (blue, 15 pins).

Answer 393

Older keyboards and mice (purple = keyboard, green = mouse)

Answer 394

High-speed data transfer for digital video cameras, older external drives.

Answer 395

400 Mbps (IEEE 1394a), 800 Mbps (IEEE 1394b)

Answer 396

Parallel (DB-25) or Centronics connector

Answer 397

RS-232 (DB-9) connector

Answer 398

Apple proprietary connector used for iPhones and iPads (replaced by USB-C in newer models).

Answer 399

Tip-Ring-Sleeve connector for headphones or microphones (3.5 mm or 6.35 mm)

Answer 400

RJ-45, used for wired networking

Answer 401

RJ-11, used for telephones or DSL.

Answer 402

Sony/Philips Digital Interface - for digital audio via coaxial or optical (TOSLINK).

Answer 403

Internal drives (HDDs, SDDs, optical drives)

Answer 404

eSATA is for external drives and supports longer cables.

Answer 405

15-pin SATA power connector

Answer 406

Older PATA drives, fans, and peripherals.

Answer 407

To transmit video signals (and sometimes audio) from a computer or media device to a display (monitor, TV, projector)

Answer 408

Video Graphics Array.

Answer 409

Analog video only

Answer 410

15 pins (DE-15, usually blue)

Answer 411

DVI (Digital Visual Interface)

Answer 412

Digital video and digital audio in one cable.

Answer 413

Around 15 meters (50 feet) for reliable performance.

Answer 414

Digital video and audio, supports high resolutions and refresh rates.

Answer 415

Daisy chaining multiple monitors from one port.

Answer 416

A smaller DisplayPort connector (used in older Macs and some laptops).

Answer 417

DisplayPort + PCI Express over a single cable.

Answer 418

USB Type-C connector

Answer 419

Up to 40 Gbps

Answer 420

Separate Video - transmits analog video using two signals (luminance and chrominance).

Answer 421

A 4-pin mini-DIN connector (round)

Answer 422

Sends all video information (colour + brightness) over a single yellow RCA connector.

Answer 423

Sends video split into three signals (Y, Pb, Pr) using red, gree, blue RCA connectors.

Answer 424

Component (supports higher resolutions).

Answer 425

Yes - both carry video and audio digitally

Answer 426

Only DVI-I/DVI-D Dual-Link can, and only if supported by the device; typically no audio.

Answer 427

HDMI and USB-C (DisplayPort Alt Mode).

Answer 428

A USB-C port that can also transmit DisplayPort video to an external monitor.

Answer 429

DisplayPort 2.1 (up to 16K) or Thunderbolt 4 (up to 8K)

Answer 430

Serial Advanced Technology Attachment.

Answer 431

To connect storage devices like HDDs, SSDs, and optical drives to the motherboard.

Answer 432

SATA data connector and SATA power connector.

Answer 433

Transfers data between the storage device and motherboard.

Answer 434

Provides power from the power supply unit (PSU) to the drive.

Answer 435

No - it requires both power and data cables.

Answer 436

SATA I (1.5 Gbps), SATA II (3 Gbps), SATA III (6 Gbps)

Answer 437

Both SATA data and power connectors are L-shaped.

Answer 438

External Serial ATA

Answer 439

Connecting external drives with the same speed as internal SATA

Answer 440

No, eSATA requires a separate power source.

Answer 441

USB 3.x and Thunderbolt connections

Answer 442

SATA = serial, faster, smaller cables; PATA = parallel, bulky ribbon cables.

Answer 443

One device per port (unlike PATA which supported two)

Answer 444

Ability to add/remove drives while system is on (if supported by controller).

Answer 445

The older Molex 4-pin connector.

Answer 446

3.3V, 5V, and 12V.

Answer 447

M.2 on motherboard (no separate cable needed)

Answer 448

Use PCIe interface, much faster, and no cables.

Answer 449

Connecting enterprise NVMe SSDs via cable (high performance)

Answer 450

Small Computer System Interface.

Answer 451

To connect storage devices (like hard drives, tape drives, scanners, optical drives) to computers and servers

Answer 452

A parallel (older) or serial (newer) interface for data transfer between computer and peripherals.

Answer 453

Parallel SCSI (legacy) and Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) (modern)

Answer 454

Serial Attached SCSI.

Answer 455

Parallel SCSI uses ribbon cables and shared bus; SAS uses serial connections and point-to-point links

Answer 456

Up to 15 devices + 1 controller = 16 total.

Answer 457

Each device has a unique SCSI ID number

Answer 458

A terminator to prevent signal reflection.

Answer 459

Devices may not be recognised or data may become corrupted.

Answer 460

50-pin, 68-pin, or 80-pin connectors (varied by generation)

Answer 461

A wide, flat cable used for internal Parallel SCSI devices.

Answer 462

A shielded, thick cable, with high-density connectors (DB-25, HD68, etc.).

Answer 463

Usually 3-12 meters, depending on the standard and number of devices.

Answer 464

From 5 MB/s (original) up to 320 MB/s (Ultra-320 SCSI)

Answer 465

SAS = Serial Attached SCSI - faster, supports longer cables, point-to-point, and hot-swappable.

Answer 466

A 7-pin connector, similar to SATA, but keyed differently.

Answer 467

Yes - SAS is backward compatible with SATA

Answer 468

No - SATA controllers cannot use SAS drives.

Answer 469

Up to 10 meters.

Answer 470

Enterprise environments: servers, RAID arrays, high-performance storage.

Answer 471

A small hardware component used to end a SCSI bus properly

Answer 472

DB-25 or HD68 connectors

Answer 473

68-pin ribbon connector or 80-pin SCA (Single Connector Attachment)

Answer 474

A connector combining data, power, and ID in one plug - used in servers for hot-swapping.

Answer 475

The fastest Parallel SCSI version (320 MB/s)

Answer 476

SATA and USB replaced SCSI for personal computers

Answer 477

SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) and Fibre Channel.

Answer 478

Parallel Advanced Technology Attachment

Answer 479

IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) or EIDE (Enhanced IDE)

Answer 480

To connect hard drives and optical drives to the motherboard.

Answer 481

SATA (Serial ATA)

Answer 482

Parallel data transfer (multiple bits simultaneously)

Answer 483

16 bits per cycle

Answer 484

A ribbon cable

Answer 485

4 pins (Molex connector).

Answer 486

40-wire and 80-wire ribbon cables

Answer 487

It has extra ground wires to reduce interference and support faster transfer speeds.

Answer 488

Up to 2 devices per cable.

Answer 489

As Master and Slave (or Cable Select)

Answer 490

By setting jumpers on the drives

Answer 491

Lets the cable position determine the device role (Master = end connector, Slave = middle connector).

Answer 492

Blue (motherboard), black (master), grey (slave)

Answer 493

16 MB/s (ATA-2) up to 133 MB/s (ATA/133)

Answer 494

A mode that improved transfer speeds using the 80-wire cable.

Answer 495

A 4-pin Molex connector (yellow, red, and two black wires).

Answer 496

+12V (yellow) and +5V (red).

Answer 497

Airflow blockage and interference due to ribbon size.

Answer 498

No, they must be powered off before connecting/disconnecting.

Answer 499

2 devices (1 master, 1 slave)

Answer 500

PATA/IDE 40-pin connector.

Answer 501

SATA 15-pin power connectors.

Answer 502

A device that allows one type of connectors or port to be used with another. Example: HDMI to VGA adapter

Answer 503

A device that changes the signal type (e.g., digital to analogue), not just the connector shape.

Answer 504

Adapters change the connector; Converters change the signal.

Answer 505

USB-C to USB-A adapter - same digital signal, just a different port shape

Answer 506

HDMI to VGA converter - converts digital HDMI to analogue VGA.

Answer 507

Used to connect a device without an Ethernet port to a wired network.

Answer 508

Adds wireless capability via an external USB network card.

Answer 509

Works without conversion since both carry digital video

Answer 510

Usually includes active circuitry for compatibility

Answer 511

When converting digital <> analogue signals or when device power is required

Answer 512

When both interfaces use the same signal type (e.g., DVI-D <> HDMI)

Answer 513

Converts Thunderbolt video output to HDMI display input

Answer 514

Converts digital Lightning audio to analogue headphone jack.

Answer 515

Allows a laptop with USB-C/Thunderbolt output to connect to a DisplayPort monitor.

Answer 516

Connectors used on copper cables to transmit electrical signals between devices.

Answer 517

RJ45 - used with twisted-pair Cat5e/Cat6 cables.

Answer 518

8 pins (4 pairs of wires)

Answer 519

Traditional telephone lines and older DSL modems

Answer 520

6 positions, 2-4 used for phone signals

Answer 521

A Bayonet Neill-Concelman connector used for coaxial cables (like RG-59/RG-6) in older networks or CCTV.

Answer 522

Provides quick connect/disconnect with a twist-lock mechanism

Answer 523

A screw-on connector used for cable TV, satellite, and broadband Internet (coaxial).

Answer 524

A 9-pin serial connector used for older modems, routers, and console connections

Answer 525

A 25-pin version of the serial connector, used for older parallel and serial ports

Answer 526

Tip-Ring-Sleeve connector for analogue audio (headphones, speakers, mic)

Answer 527

Tip-Ring-Ring-Sleeve - supports audio + microphone (e.g., phone headsets).

Answer 528

Round colour-coded connectors (red/white/yellow) for analogue audio and video

Answer 529

TV signals, modems, CCTV - typically uses F-type or BNC connectors

Answer 530

Testing network interface cards (NICs) and Ethernet ports

Answer 531

RJ45 or DB9, depending on implementation

Answer 532

Connector tip is polished to reduce back reflection

Answer 533

A type of PC polish with very low back reflection

Answer 534

Polished at an 8° angle to further reduce back reflection; common in FTTH.

Answer 535

A device that joins two fiber connectors, e.g., LC-LC or SC-SC

Answer 536

Prevents signal reflection on unused ports

Answer 537

Protective sleeve that supports and protects the fiber cable near the connector.

Answer 538

Lint-free wipes, isopropyl alcohol, or specialised fiber cleaning kits

Answer 539

Dust or oil can cause signal loss, reflection, and transmission errors.

Answer 540

To check fiber continuity or find breaks by sending visible red light through the fiber.

Answer 541

A component that stores data temporarily or permanently for use by the CPU.

Answer 542

Volatile memory (RAM) and non-volatile memory (ROM, flash, storage)

Answer 543

Memory that loses its contents when power is turned off (e.g., RAM)

Answer 544

Memory that retains data without power (e.g., ROM, flash drives, SSDs).

Answer 545

Random Access Memory - temporary storage used by the CPU for running programs and active data

Answer 546

DRAM: slower, uses capacitors, needs refreshing (used for main memory) SRAM: faster, uses flip-flops, does not need refreshing (used for CPU cache).

Answer 547

Read-Only Memory - permanent memory storing instructions like BIOS/UEFI firmware.

Answer 548

Erasable Programmable ROM - can be erased with UV light and reprogrammed.

Answer 549

Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM - can be erased/reprogrammed electrically (used in BIOS)

Answer 550

Non-volatile memory that can be rewritten electronically, used in USB drives, SSDs, and firmware.

Answer 551

A portion of the hard drive used as RAM when physical RAM is full.

Answer 552

High-speed memory inside or near the CPU that stores frequently accessed data for faster access.

Answer 553

L1: smallest & fastest, inside CPU L2: larger, slower, inside or near CPU. L3: shared across cores, slower than L2

Answer 554

The amount of data RAM can read/write per second.

Answer 555

The delay between a request and when data is available.

Answer 556

Double Data Rate Synchronous DRAM - transfers data twice per clock cycle.

Answer 557

DDR (2.5-3.2 GB/s), DDR2 (3.2-8.5 GB/s), DDR3 (6.4-17 GB/s), DDR4 (12.8-25.6 GB/s), DDR5 (up to 51.2 GB/s)

Answer 558

Small Outline DIMM, used in laptops and compact devices

Answer 559

Dual Inline Memory Module, standard memory module for desktops.

Answer 560

Error-Correcting Code memory - detects and corrects errors, used in servers.

Answer 561

Standard memory used in most desktops and laptops, no error correction.

Answer 562

Older memory that detects errors but cannot correct them

Answer 563

Uses two memory modules in parallel to increase bandwidth.

Answer 564

Uses three or four modules in parallel for even higher bandwidth.

Answer 565

Higher frequency and lower latency = faster data access = better performance.

Answer 566

The different types of RAM, ROM, and storage memory used in computer and devices.

Answer 567

Dynamic RAM - stores data in capacitors, needs constant refreshing, used as main system memory.

Answer 568

Static RAM - uses flip-flops, faster than DRAM, no refresh needed, used for CPU cache.

Answer 569

Synchronous DRAM - synchronised with CPU clock for faster access.

Answer 570

Double Data Rate SDRAM - transfers data twice per clock cycle.

Answer 571

DDR, DDR2, DDR3, DDR4, DDR5 - each faster and more efficient than the last.

Answer 572

Rambus DRAM - high-speed memory used in older systems (Intel Pentium 4 era)

Answer 573

Video RAM - dedicated RAM for graphics cards, stores frame buffer for video display..

Answer 574

Graphics DDR - high-speed RAM for GPUs

Answer 575

Error-Correcting Code memory - detects and corrects errors, used in servers and workstations.

Answer 576

Non-volatile memory used for firmware, USB drives, SSDs, and embedded systems.

Answer 577

Read-Only Memory - permanent memory storing firmware (BIOS/UEFI).

Answer 578

Non-Volatile DIMM - RAM module that retains data after power loss (used in servers for fast storage)

Answer 579

Intel's persistent memory technology - bridges gap between RAM and SSD storage for faster access.

Answer 580

High Bandwidth Memory - stacked memory for GPUs and high-performance computing.

Answer 581

A portion of storage (HDD/SSD) used to extend RAM when physical memory is full.

Answer 582

Reserved area on storage used for virtual memory

Answer 583

Memory technology used in SSDs, USB drives, and memory cards.

Answer 584

Flash memory with fast read times, often used in embedded devices and firmware.

Answer 585

RAM accessed one module at a time.

Answer 586

RAM accessed two modules in parallel, improving bandwidth.

Answer 587

RAM accessed four modules in parallel, common in high-end workstations.

Answer 588

Older RAM type that detects errors but cannot correct them

Answer 589

Volatile: loses data when power is off (RAM) Non-volatile: retains data (ROM, Flash, SSD)

Answer 590

A hardware component that stores data permanently or temporarily for retrieval and use.

Answer 591

Magnetic (HDD) and Solid-state (SSD)

Answer 592

Hard Disk Drive - uses spinning magnetic platters and read/write heads to store data.

Answer 593

Solid-State Drive - uses flash memory (NAND) to store data, no moving parts.

Answer 594

Faster, quieter, more durable, and lower power consumption.

Answer 595

Cheaper per gigabyte and available in larger capacities.

Answer 596

Combines HDD + SSD cache, offering speed and capacity balance.

Answer 597

Storage in USB drives, SD cards, SSDs, and mobile devices.

Answer 598

Non-Volatile Memory Express - connects directly via PCIe for ultra-fast performance.

Answer 599

SATA SSDs use slower SATA bus; NVMe SSDs use PCIe lanes for higher speed.

Answer 600

Serial ATA - common connection standard for HDDs and SSDs

Answer 601

Parallel ATA (IDE) - older connetion using ribbon cables.

Answer 602

Small Computer System Interface - older enterprise storage standard, replaced by SAS.

Answer 603

Serial Attached SCSI - faster and more reliable than SATA, used in servers.

Answer 604

3.5-inch (desktop) or 2.5-inch (laptop)

Answer 605

Compact connector/interface used for NVMe or SATA SSDs on modern motherboards.

Answer 606

Used for enterprise SSDs, connects via PCIe but with a cable instead of M.2 slot.

Answer 607

Storage that uses lasers to read/write data on discs (CD, DVD, Blu-ray)

Answer 608

Around 700 MB

Answer 609

4.7 GB (single layer) or 8.5 GB (dual layer)

Answer 610

25 GB (single layer) or 50 GB (dual layer)

Answer 611

Blu-ray XL with up to 128 GB capacity

Answer 612

Redundant Array of Independent Disks - combines multiple drives for speed, redundancy, or both.

Answer 613

Striping - splits data across drives for speed, no redundancy.

Answer 614

Mirroring - duplicates data on two drives for redundancy.

Answer 615

Striping with parity - needs 3+ drives, offers speed + redundancy

Answer 616

Striped mirrors - combines RAID 0 and 1, needs 4+ drives, offers speed + redundancy

Answer 617

Devices like USB drives, external HDDs/SSDs, or NAS (network attached storage).

Answer 618

Network Attached Storage - a dedicated file server accessible over a network.

Answer 619

Data stored on remote servers accessed via the internet.

Answer 620

Magnetic tape used for long-term data backup and archiving.

Answer 621

Redundant Array of Independent (or Inexpensive) Disks.

Answer 622

To provide data redundancy, performance improvements, or both

Answer 623

Hardware RAID (controller-based) and Software RAID (OS-managed)

Answer 624

Striping - improves performance, no redundancy

Answer 625

Splits data evenly across two or more disks

Answer 626

All data is lost

Answer 627

Mirroring - duplicates data on two or more drives

Answer 628

High redundancy (data survives one drive failure)

Answer 629

Storage efficiency (only 50% usable)

Answer 630

Striping with parity - good balance of performance, redundancy, and effieciency

Answer 631

Can recover using parity data

Answer 632

Slow rebuild times after a failure

Answer 633

Striping with double parity - can survive 2 drive failures

Answer 634

In critical systems needing high redundancy

Answer 635

Combines mirroring and striping - fast and redundant

Answer 636

Best combination of speed and redundancy

Answer 637

1, 5, 6, 10

Answer 638

RAID 0, 5, 10

Answer 639

The physical layout, size, mounting points, and connector placement of a motherboard

Answer 640

They ensure compatibility between the motherboard, case, and power supply

Answer 641

ATX (Advanced Technology eXtended)

Answer 642

ATX, Micro-ATX, Mini-ITX, and proprietary (OEM) boards

Answer 643

305 x 244 mm

Answer 644

Up to 7 expansion slots Plenty of RAM and storage connectors Standard 24-pin power connector Common in desktop and gaming PCs

Answer 645

244 x 244 mm

Answer 646

Smaller than ATX Up to 4 expansion slots Usually fewer RAM and PCIe slots Fits in ATX or Micro-ATX cases

Answer 647

170 x 170 mm

Answer 648

Very compact, designed for small form factor PCs Typically one expansion slot Low power consumption Common in HTPCs (Home Theatre PCs) and compact systems

Answer 649

Custom-designed boards used by manufacturers like Dell or HP that may not follow ATX standards.

Answer 650

Limited upgrade options and unique power connectors or mounting points.

Answer 651

Slots on the motherboard that allow additional cards (like GPUs or NICs) to be installed for extra functionality.

Answer 652

Add-on cards or adapter cards.

Answer 653

Graphics card, sound card, network card, capture card, RAID controller, etc.

Answer 654

An older parallel expansion slot standard used for sound, network, and modem cards.

Answer 655

Rarely - mostly replaced by PCI Express (PCIe)

Answer 656

Parallel communication (data sent over multiple lines simultaneously)

Answer 657

The modern high-speed serial interface standard for expansion cards

Answer 658

Serial communication - one bit per lane, per direction

Answer 659

Individual data paths that carry signals between the slot and the CPU/chipset

Answer 660

The number of lanes the slot has (1, 4, 8, or 16 lanes). More lanes = faster throughput.

Answer 661

Yes - e.g., a PCIe x1 card can fit into x4, x8, or x16 slot.

Answer 662

PCIe 1.0, 2.0, 3.0, 4.0, 5.0 (and 6.0 emerging)

Answer 663

Yes - slower cards work in newer slots and vice versa (at the lowest speed supported)

Answer 664

Around 16 GB/s

Answer 665

A legacy slot used for graphics cards before PCIe became standard.

Answer 666

Old modem and network interface slots (now obsolete)

Answer 667

Compact versions or PCIe used in laptops and small form factor systems.

Answer 668

PCI Express (PCIe)

Answer 669

M.2 (using PCIe lanes)

Answer 670

Interfaces on the motherboard used to connect internal and external components such as power, storage, and front panel devices.

Answer 671

Power connectors and data/communication connectors

Answer 672

24-pin ATX power connector (formerly 20-pin)

Answer 673

4-pin or 8-pin (EPS12V) CPU power connector, located near the CPU socket.

Answer 674

6-pin or 8-pin PCIe power connectors (from PSU)

Answer 675

SATA power connector (15-pin)

Answer 676

Molex connector (4-pin)

Answer 677

SATA (Serial ATA) connector.

Answer 678

PATA (IDE) connector - 40-pin ribbon cable

Answer 679

M.2 (using PCIe or SATA lanes)

Answer 680

mSATA (Mini SATA)

Answer 681

Power switch, reset switch, power LED, and HDD LED.

Answer 682

USB headers (e.g., USB 2.0, USB 3.0, USB-C internal headers)

Answer 683

Connects the front panel headphone and microphone jacks (often labelled HD_AUDIO).

Answer 684

SYS_FAN or CHA_FAN - usually 3-pin or 4-pin

Answer 685

CPU_FAN - 4-pin PWM-controlled header near the CPU socket.

Answer 686

The back section of the motherboard where external devices connect.

Answer 687

- USB (2.0, 3.0, 3.1, USB-C) - Ethernet (RJ-45) - Audio jacks (3.5mm) - HDMI / DisplayPort / VGA / DVI - PS/2 ports (legacy keyboard/mouse)

Answer 688

Ethernet networking.

Answer 689

A round 6-pin connector for older keyboards and mice.

Answer 690

A small 3V coin-cell (CR2032) battery that powers BIOS settings memory.

Answer 691

Managing data flow between CPU, RAM, and peripherals.

Answer 692

BIOS/UEFI flash header or USB BIOS flashback port (on some boards)

Answer 693

Ensuring the motherboard works with all components in a system: CPU, RAM, storage, power supply, case, and peripherals.

Answer 694

Incorrect pairing can prevent a PC from booting, reduce performance, or even damage components.

Answer 695

CPU socket type (e.g., LGA1200, AM4) and chipset support.

Answer 696

Not always - motherboard chipset and BIOS/UEFI version must also support the CPU.

Answer 697

Controls which features and CPUs are supported and how data flows between CPU, RAM, and peripherals.

Answer 698

Type (DDR3, DDR4, DDR5), speed, voltage, and maximum capacity.

Answer 699

Usually yes, but the system runs at the speed of the slowest module.

Answer 700

Memory configuration mode to increase bandwidth - requires matched modules in specific slots.

Answer 701

Supported Interfaces: SATA, M.2 (SATA or NVMe), U.2, and the number of available ports.

Answer 702

No - interface must match (SATA vs PCIe/NVMe).

Answer 703

Connectors (24-pin ATX main, 4/8 main, 4/8-pin CPU, optional PCIe) and power rating.

Answer 704

It may power on but can cause instability or damage under load.

Answer 705

Form factor (ATX, Micro-ATX, Mini-ITX) and mounting holes.

Answer 706

Yes - it uses ATX-compatible mounting points.

Answer 707

No - it's too large.

Answer 708

Slot type (x1, x4, x8, x16) and version (PCIe 3.0, 4.0, 5.0)

Answer 709

Yes, but it runs at 3.0 speed

Answer 710

Physically yes, but power requirements and case clearance must be considered.

Answer 711

The system may not boot, crash, or damage components.

Answer 712

Basic Input/Output System - firmware on a motherboard that initialises hardware during boot and provides a runtime interface for the OS

Answer 713

Basic Input/Output System

Answer 714

On a non-volatile ROM chip on the motherboard.

Answer 715

1. POST (Power-On Self-Test) - checks hardware functionality 2. Bootstrap loader - finds and loads the operating system 3. BIOS setup utility - allows configuration of hardware settings. 4. Provides low-level hardware control - for keyboard, display, storage, etc.

Answer 716

Power-On Self-Test - a hardware diagnostic performed at boot,

Answer 717

Beep codes (speaker) or error messages on-screen.

Answer 718

A menu accessed during boot (common DEL, F2, F10) to configure hardware settings.

Answer 719

Modern replacement for BIOS with graphical interface, larger boot drives support, and secure boot.

Answer 720

- Supports drives >2.2 TB (GPT) - Graphical Interface and mouse support - Faster boot times - Secure Boot to prevent malware at startup

Answer 721

Yes - often called CSM (Compatibility Support Module)

Answer 722

Updating BIOS firmware to support new CPUs or fix bugs.

Answer 723

A failed update can brick the motherboard, making it unbootable.

Answer 724

Keeps BIOS settings saved when the system is powered off.

Answer 725

- Remove CMOS battery for a few minutes - Use BIOS reset jumper - Select "Load Default Settings" in BIOS menu

Answer 726

During system power-on, before the OS loads.

Answer 727

POST error code/beeps or system halt.

Answer 728

They control system boot order, hardware compatibility, security, and power management.

Answer 729

Determines the sequence of devices the system tries to boot from (HDD, SSD, USB, CD/DVD, network)

Answer 730

Modern boot mode supporting GPT drives, Secure Boot, and faster startup.

Answer 731

BIOS compatibility mode that allows booting from MBR drives or older OSes

Answer 732

- Core enabling/disabling - Virtualisation (Intel VT-x / AMD-V) - Hyper-Threading - CPU clock multipliers (overclocking)

Answer 733

Configures RAM speed, latency, and voltage for stability or performance.

Answer 734

Sets how drives communicate with the motherboard

Answer 735

Enables high-speed SSDs over PCIe or M.2 interfaces.

Answer 736

Prevents unauthorised access to the BIOS setup or system boot.

Answer 737

UEFI feature that ensures only trusted OS bootloaders run to prevent malware.

Answer 738

Security chip for encryption, BitLocker, and authentication.

Answer 739

Allows the computer to turn on via network signal.

Answer 740

Configure power-saving modes like S3 (sleep) or S4 (hibernation).

Answer 741

Adjusts CPU/system fan speed for cooling and noise management.

Answer 742

Enable/disable USB ports, audio, LAN, Wi-Fi, and integrated graphics.

Answer 743

Enables hardware-assisted virtualisation for better VM performance.

Answer 744

- "Load Default Settings" in BIOS menu - Remove CMOS battery for a few minutes - Use BIOS reset jumper

Answer 745

Incorrect settings can prevent boot, cause instability, or damage hardware.

Answer 746

Central Processing Unit - the "brain" of the computer, responsible for executing instructions and managing data.

Answer 747

They physical interface on the motherboard where the CPU is installed. Compatibility depends on socket type and chipset.

Answer 748

Number of cycles a CPU executes per second, measured in GHz.

Answer 749

An individual processing unit within a CPU that can execute instructions independently.

Answer 750

A sequence of instructions the CPU can manage; Hyper-Threading/SMT allows one core to handle multiple threads.

Answer 751

Technology that allows a single CPU core to process two threads simultaneously, improving multitasking.

Answer 752

High-speed memory on the CPU for storing frequently used instructions/data. Levels: L1 (smallest, fastest), L2 (medium), L3 (largest, slower).

Answer 753

Determines how much memory the CPU can address and process at once. 64-bit CPUs can handle more RAM and larger data sets.

Answer 754

The design of the CPU (e.g., Intel Core, AMD Ryzen, ARM) that defines instruction set, cores, and efficiency.

Answer 755

A graphics processor built into the CPU, used when there is no discrete GPU.

Answer 756

Running the CPU faster than the rated speed for higher performance.

Answer 757

CPU reduces speed automatically to prevent overheating.

Answer 758

Technology that temporarily increases CPU speed above base clock for demanding tasks.

Answer 759

Socket type and chipset support.

Answer 760

No - BIOS/UEFI and chipset must support the specific CPU model.

Answer 761

Number of cores, threads, clock speed, cache size, and architecture efficiency.

Answer 762

Prevents thermal throttling and hardware damage.

Answer 763

A hardware component inserted into a motherboard slot to add or enhance functionality (e.g., graphics, sound, network).

Answer 764

Add-on cards or adapter cards.

Answer 765

Yes - a smaller PCIe card (x1) can fit into a larger slot (x4, x8, x16).

Answer 766

Yes, but speed is limited to the lowest version supported by the card or slot.

Answer 767

Can be inserted or removed while the system is powered on (mostly for enterprise RAID or NICs).

Answer 768

Dedicated video memory for graphics processing, independent of system RAM.

Answer 769

Manages multiple drives in RAID configurations for redundancy or speed.

Answer 770

Prevents overheating, which can cause thermal throttling, instability, or permanent hardware damage

Answer 771

CPU, GPU, and power supply are the main heat sources

Answer 772

Using fans and heatsinks to move heat away from components.

Answer 773

A metal block (usually alluminum or copper) attached to a CPU/GPU to absorb heat.

Answer 774

Moves heat away from the heatsink to the air inside the case.

Answer 775

A conductive material applied between CPU/GPU and heatsink to improve heat transfer.

Answer 776

Circulates coolant through tubes and a radiator to remove heat from components.

Answer 777

- Closed-loop (All-in-One/AIO) - sealed, pre-filled, easy to install - Custom-loop - user-designed with reservoirs, pumps, and tubing

Answer 778

More efficient than air cooling for high-performance CPUs and GPUs

Answer 779

No fans; relies on heatsinks and natural airflow.

Answer 780

Low-power devices like fanless PCs, small IoT devices, or embedded systems.

Answer 781

- Positive pressure: More intake fans than exhaust - reduces dust - Negative pressure: More exhaust than intake - may improve airflow but draws in dust

Answer 782

80mm, 120mm, 140mm - larger fans move more air at lower RPM (quieter)

Answer 783

CPU_FAN and SYS_FAN headers on the motherboard, usually 3-pin or 4-pin (PWM).

Answer 784

Every 2-3 years or when removing/reinstalling the heatsink.

Answer 785

- Clear cable clutter - Proper intake/exhaust fan placement - Dust filters on intake fans - Maintain positive or balanced pressure

Answer 786

CPU/GPU automatically reduces clock speed to prevent overheating.

Answer 787

System may crash, throttle performance, or get permanently damaged

Answer 788

High-quality air cooling or liquid cooling depending on budget and noise preference.

Answer 789

Converts AC (Alternating Current) from the wall outlet into DC (Direct Current) used by computer components.

Answer 790

+3.3V, +5V, and +12V. - +12V > CPU, GPU, drives, fans - +5V > Legacy devices, logic circuits - +3.3V > Modern chips, RAM

Answer 791

24-pin ATX connector (older systems used 20-pin)

Answer 792

4-pin or 8-pin EPS connector (near the CPU socket)

Answer 793

6-pin or 8-pin PCIe connectors, sometimes multiple for high-end GPUs.

Answer 794

SATA power connector (15-pin).

Answer 795

Molex connector (4-pin).

Answer 796

The maximum total power output in watts it can provide to the system.

Answer 797

The combined power draw of the CPU, GPU, and the other components.

Answer 798

A rating system for PSU efficiency (less wasted heat)

Answer 799

ATX power supply

Answer 800

SFX, TFX, and Flex ATX

Answer 801

Only if the case and motherboard support the same standard

Answer 802

Power supply where cables can be detached, improving airflow and cable management.

Answer 803

A battery backup that provides power during outages and protects against surges.

Answer 804

Shields components from power spikes or voltage surges.

Answer 805

Feature that improves power efficiency and stability (can be active or passive)

Answer 806

It contains high-voltage capacitors that can retain charge even when unplugged

Answer 807

- Random shutdowns or reboots - Burning smell or noise - System won't power on

Answer 808

Multimeter or a PSU tester.

Answer 809

A single device that combines printing, scanning, copying, and faxing functions.

Answer 810

Inkjet MFDs and laser MFDs

Answer 811

They save space, reduce cost, and simplify maintenance by combining multiple functions.

Answer 812

USB, Ethernet, Wi-Fi, or Bluetooth.

Answer 813

Printing automatically on both sides of the paper.

Answer 814

Printing and arranging multiple copies of multi-page documents in order

Answer 815

A device or software that manages print jobs over a network.

Answer 816

Temporarily storing print jobs on the computer or print server until the printer is ready.

Answer 817

An optical device that converts physical documents or images into digital format

Answer 818

DPI (dots per inch)

Answer 819

Sends scanned documents over a telephone line to another fax machine

Answer 820

A component that feeds multiple pages into the scanner or copier automatically

Answer 821

A scanner with a flat glass surface for single-page or fragile documents.

Answer 822

Software that allows the computer to communicate with the printer.

Answer 823

Printer Command Language - a common printing standard.

Answer 824

A printer language developed by Adobe for high-quality graphic printing.

Answer 825

Using a printer shared over LAN or Wi-Fi network.

Answer 826

Printing through the internet using online print services or cloud-connected devices.

Answer 827

Allowing multiple users on a network to use one printer.

Answer 828

A touchscreen or control panel for managing print, copy, and scan jobs.

Answer 829

Fine powder used by laser printers to form text and images

Answer 830

Liquid pigment used by inkjet printers to print on paper.

Answer 831

Power, cables, network connection, print queue, and driver status.

Answer 832

Cleaning rollers, replacing cartridges, and checking for firmware updates.

Answer 833

Ozone emission and hot fuser components - ensure good ventilation and caution when servicing.

Answer 834

A printer that uses a laser beam and toner to produce high-quality text and images on paper.

Answer 835

Fast printing speed, sharp output, and low cost per page.

Answer 836

Toner, a fine powdered plastic material.

Answer 837

The toner cartridge

Answer 838

A light-sensitive cylinder that transfers toner to paper using electrical charges.

Answer 839

Draws an electrostatic image on the drum by discharging specific areas.

Answer 840

Transfers the toner image from drum to the paper.

Answer 841

Uses heat and pressure to permanently bond toner to the paper.

Answer 842

Applies a high voltage charge to the drum or paper to attract toner

Answer 843

Contains toner and helps apply it to the charged areas of the drum

Answer 844

Pulls paper from the tray into the printer.

Answer 845

Prevents multiple sheets from feeding at once.

Answer 846

The printer's toner supply has run out and must be replaced.

Answer 847

A worn-out drum or fuser assembly causing leftover images.

Answer 848

Dirty roller or incorrect paper size/type.

Answer 849

The fuser assembly is failing or overheating

Answer 850

Removes residual toner from the drum before the next cycle.

Answer 851

Turn off power, avoid touching the fuser (hot), and beware of high voltage inside.

Answer 852

Aligning colours or adjusting toner levels for accurate output

Answer 853

To ensure consistent print quality, prevent breakdowns, and extend the printer's lifespan

Answer 854

Cleaning, replacing consumables, checking firmware, and running calibration

Answer 855

Toner cartridge, imaging drum, fuser assembly, and transfer roller.

Answer 856

Holds toner powder and delivers it to the imaging drum

Answer 857

When print output becomes faded or the printer displays a low toner warning

Answer 858

Transfers the toner image to paper - must be replaced when print quality deteriorates or ghosting appears.

Answer 859

Uses heat and pressure to permanently bond toner to the paper.

Answer 860

When pages come out smudged or toner rubs off easily.

Answer 861

Moves toner from the drum to the paper.

Answer 862

When images appear faint or incomplete.

Answer 863

A set of parts (fuser, roller, transfer units) recommended for replacement after a certain page count.

Answer 864

Rollers, paper path, corona wire, and the exterior vents.

Answer 865

A toner vacuum or lint-free cloth - never a regular household vacuum

Answer 866

It can spread toner dust and damage sensitive components.

Answer 867

A built-in cleaning tab or isopropyl alcohol with a cotton swab (if specified by the manufacturer)

Answer 868

Turn off the printer, use a toner vacuum, and avoid inhaling toner particles.

Answer 869

Cool, dry, dust-free, and away from direct sunlight.

Answer 870

Adjusting colour balance and alignment to ensure accurate print output.

Answer 871

Whenever colour output looks off or after replacing major components.

Answer 872

Improves performance, fixes bugs, and adds compatibility for new cartridges.

Answer 873

Host fuser assembly and high-voltage areas inside - avoid touching internal ports

Answer 874

Turn off the printer and unplug it.

Answer 875

Toner can leak easily and damage clothing or components.

Answer 876

Direct sunlight or heat - it can damage the drum.

Answer 877

A printer that sprays tiny droplets of liquid ink directly onto paper to form images or text.

Answer 878

Printhead, ink cartridges, paper feed mechanism, carriage, and control circuitry

Answer 879

It sprays microscopic ink droplets through nozzles onto paper, mixing colours to form images.

Answer 880

Thermal bubble and piezoelectric.

Answer 881

It uses heat to create vapour bubbles that force ink out of the nozzle (used by HP and Canon).

Answer 882

It uses a crystal that flexes when an electric charge is applied, pushing ink out (used by Epson).

Answer 883

Dye-based ink and pigment-based ink

Answer 884

Producing vibrant colours and photo-quality prints

Answer 885

Producing durable, smudge-resistant text and documents.

Answer 886

The component that sprays ink onto paper through tiny nozzles.

Answer 887

When the printer sits unused and ink dries in the nozzles.

Answer 888

Run the printer's cleaning cycle or use manual cleaning with proper fluid.

Answer 889

A replaceable container holding liquid ink for the printer

Answer 890

Integrated: printhead built into the cartridge; Separate: printhead is part of the printer.

Answer 891

Use genuine or compatible cartridges recommended by the manufacturer.

Answer 892

It may cause leaks, poor colour quality, or damage to the printhead.

Answer 893

It can cause printhead damage and air blockages in ink lines.

Answer 894

Cleaning clogged printheads

Answer 895

The printer's built-in cleaning utility.

Answer 896

Remove them and gently wipe with a lint-free cloth and cleaning solution

Answer 897

Using water or rough materials that can damage the nozzles.

Answer 898

It keeps ink flowing and prevents nozzles from drying out

Answer 899

Run a nozzle check and perform colour calibration.

Answer 900

Paper designed for inkjet printing, with a special coating that absorbs ink properly.

Answer 901

Ink may smear, bleed, or take too long to dry.How

Answer 902

In a cool, dry place, away from humidity.

Answer 903

To keep print quality high and prevent damage from dried ink, dust, or mechanical wear.

Answer 904

The part of the printer that sprays ink onto paper through tiny nozzles

Answer 905

When the printer isn't used often and ink dries inside the nozzles.

Answer 906

Print a test page or nozzle check at least once a week.

Answer 907

Run the printer's automatic printhead cleaning utility.

Answer 908

A test print that shows if all ink nozzles are firing correctly.

Answer 909

Before and after cleaning the printhead.

Answer 910

Yes, remove it carefully and use a lint-free cloth and manufacturer-approved cleaning fluid.

Answer 911

Using tap water or touching the nozzle area with fingers or rough materials.

Answer 912

Empty cartridges can cause air bubbles or printhead overheating.

Answer 913

It might cause poor print quality, leaks, or clog the printhead.

Answer 914

Keep them upright, avoid touching the nozzles, and store them in a cool, dry place.

Answer 915

It can create air bubbles that cause printing issues.

Answer 916

Align the printheads using the printer's alignment utility.

Answer 917

Dirty rollers, torn paper pieces inside, or using the wrong paper type.

Answer 918

Use a slightly damp, lint-free cloth or roller cleaning sheet.

Answer 919

The printer may pull multiple sheets or fail to feed paper.

Answer 920

Every few months, or more often dusty environments

Answer 921

A small vacuum or compressed air (used gently)

Answer 922

Directly on printheads or ink cartridges - it can push dust into the nozzles.

Answer 923

Wipe gently with a soft, damp cloth.

Answer 924

It helps cap the printheads, preventing them from drying out.

Answer 925

A printer that uses heat to create images on paper instead of ink or toner

Answer 926

Direct thermal and thermal transfer printers.

Answer 927

A printer that burns images directly onto heat-sensitive paper using a heated printhead.

Answer 928

Chemically treated, heat-sensitive paper.

Answer 929

No, they rely entirely on heat

Answer 930

Receipts, shipping labels, and barcode labels.

Answer 931

A printer that uses a ribbon coated with wax, resin, or both, which is melted onto the paper or label by heat.

Answer 932

Paper, plastic, and synthetic labels.

Answer 933

It's more durable and resistant to fading and heat.

Answer 934

Thermal ribbon and print media (paper or labels)

Answer 935

Asset tags, ID labels, and long-term barcode labels.

Answer 936

Printhead, platen roller, feed mechanism, power supply, and control circuitry.

Answer 937

It generates heat to form the image on the paper or transfer ribbon.

Answer 938

The rubber roller that pulls paper or labels through the printer and presses them against the printhead.

Answer 939

Dirt or residue can cause streaks, faded areas, or damage.

Answer 940

The printhead, platen roller, and paper path.

Answer 941

Isopropyl alcohol and a lint-free cloth or cleaning pen.

Answer 942

The printhead surface - oils can damage it.

Answer 943

To remove paper dust or ribbon residue that affects feed consistency

Answer 944

After every few rolls of paper or ribbons.

Answer 945

To ensure clear, consistent printing, prevent jams, and extend the printer's lifespan

Answer 946

The component that generates heat to create images on paper or transfer ribbon.

Answer 947

Dust, debris, or residue can cause streaks, faded printing, or damage the printhead.

Answer 948

Isopropyl alcohol with a lint-free cloth or a specialised cleaning pen.

Answer 949

No, oils from fingers can damage it.

Answer 950

After every few rolls of paper or ribbons, or whenever print quality drops.

Answer 951

A rubber roller that feeds paper and presses it against the printhead.

Answer 952

Dust, paper fibers, or ribbon residue can cause uneven feed or print quality issues.

Answer 953

Wipe gently with a lint-free cloth moistened with isopropyl alcohol

Answer 954

Rollers, guides, sensors, and media trays to prevent jams and misfeeds.

Answer 955

Wax, resin, or wax/resin ribbons

Answer 956

Exposure to heat, humidity, or direct sunlight can degrade the ribbon and affect print quality.

Answer 957

Heat-sensitive paper only.

Answer 958

Oils or dirt can prevent proper image formation.

Answer 959

To prevent dust and debris from entering the printer.

Answer 960

Yes, but gently - avoid direct blasts at the printhead.

Answer 961

Prevents long-term wear, ensures consistent print qualit, and avoids costly repairs.

Answer 962

A printer that physically strikes an inked ribbon against paper to create characters or images.

Answer 963

Dot matrix printers, daisy wheel printers, and line printers.

Answer 964

An impact printer that forms characters and images with a matrix of tiny dots.

Answer 965

A printhead with pins strikes an ink ribbon to transfer dots onto paper.

Answer 966

Can print multi-part forms (carbon copies) and are durable.

Answer 967

Noisy and lower print quality compared to inkjet or laser

Answer 968

An inked fabric or nylon ribbon that transfers ink when struck by pins.

Answer 969

The component containing pins that strike the ribbon to form dots on the paper.

Answer 970

An impact printer with a rotating wheel shaped like a flower, with characters on each petal.

Answer 971

A hammer strikes the selected character on the wheel against an ink ribbon to print.

Answer 972

Produces letter-quality, crisp text.

Answer 973

Cannot print graphics, slower than dot matrix for large documents.

Answer 974

An impact printer that prints an entire line of text at once.

Answer 975

High-volume environments like banks, billing systems, and data centres.

Answer 976

Chain, bar, and drum printers.

Answer 977

Continuous forms or multi-part carbon copies.

Answer 978

Pins physically transfer ink through all layers of paper.

Answer 979

Cleaning the printhead, ribbon replacement, cleaning rollers, and lubrication of moving parts.

Answer 980

Dust, ink, and paper debris can reduce print quality and wear out pins.

Answer 981

When prints become faded or inconsistent.

Answer 982

To prevent jams, skewed, feeding, or misaligned printing.

Answer 983

Light machine oil or manufacturer-approved grease.

Answer 984

To ensure consistent print quality, prevent jams, and extend the printer's lifespan.

Answer 985

The component with pins that strike the ribbon to form dots on paper.

Answer 986

Dust, ink, and paper debris can reduce print quality and cause missing dots.

Answer 987

Use a soft brush or lint-free cloth, and manufacturer-approved cleaning solution if needed.

Answer 988

Pins may wear unevenly or break, causing poor print quality.

Answer 989

Inked fabric or nylon that transfers ink onto paper when struck by pins.

Answer 990

When print becomes faded, uneven, or missing lines.

Answer 991

In a cool, dry place, away from sunlight and dust.

Answer 992

To prevent paper jams, misfeeds, or skewed printing.

Answer 993

Wipe gently with a lint-free cloth; light machine oil can be used on moving parts if recommended

Answer 994

Continuous forms designed for impact printers.

Answer 995

Reduces friction, wear, and noisy operation.

Answer 996

Light machine oil or manufacturer approved grease.

Answer 997

Carriage rails, gears, and feed mechanisms.

Answer 998

A printer that creates three-dimensional objects by depositing material layer by layer from a digital model .

Answer 999

Fused Deposition Modeling (FDM), Stereolithography (SLA), and Selective Laser Sintering (SLS).

Answer 1000

Melts and extrudes thermoplastic filament through a heated nozzle to build layers.

Answer 1001

PLS, ABS, PETG, and TPU filaments.

Answer 1002

A surface that warms the print to reduce warping and improve adhesion.

Answer 1003

Warping, stringing, or layer misalignment.

Answer 1004

Uses a laser or projector to cure liquid resin layer by layer.

Answer 1005

Liquid photopolymer resins

Answer 1006

Cleaning prints with isopropyl alcohol and curing under UV light to harden the resin fully.

Answer 1007

Uses a laser to fuse powdered material layer by layer into a solid object.

Answer 1008

Nylon, metals, ceramics, or plastic powders.

Answer 1009

Can print complex geometries without support structures.

Answer 1010

The surface where the object is built.

Answer 1011

The mechanism that pushes filament through the heated nozzle (FDM) or delivers resin (SLA).

Answer 1012

The tip of the extruder where melted filament is deposited.

Answer 1013

Controls precise movements of the printhead and bed.

Answer 1014

Cools filament after extrusion to maintain layer shape.

Answer 1015

Supports the object as it is printed and can be heated to improve adhesion.

Answer 1016

Nozzle, build plate, fans, and rails.

Answer 1017

Use quality filaments, maintain proper temperature, and clean regularly.

Answer 1018

Adjusting the build plate to be perfectly parallel to the nozzle for proper adhesion.

Answer 1019

Keeps rails and lead screws moving smoothly, preventing layer misalignment.

Answer 1020

Avoid touching the hot nozzle or heated bed, wear gloves when handling resin, and ensure proper ventilation.

Answer 1021

A framework that defines how cloud services are delivered and accessed.

Answer 1022

IaaS, PaaS, SaaS.

Answer 1023

Provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, such as servers, storage, and networks.

Answer 1024

The cloud provider manages the infrastructure; the user manages the OS, apps, and data.

Answer 1025

Amazon Web Services (AWS) EC2, Microsoft Azure VMs, Google Compute Engine.

Answer 1026

Scalability, flexibility, and cost savings - pay only for what you use.

Answer 1027

Provides a platform to develop, run, and manage applications without handling the underlying infrastructure.

Answer 1028

The cloud provider manages infrastructure, OS, and middleware; the user focuses on apps and data.

Answer 1029

Google App Engine, Microsoft Azure App Service, Heroku.

Answer 1030

Simplifies development and reduces the need for server management.

Answer 1031

Provides software applications over the internet that users can access via a web browser.

Answer 1032

The cloud provider handles everything: infrastructure, OS, apps, and data.

Answer 1033

Gmail, Microsoft 365, Salesforce, Dropbox.

Answer 1034

No installation, maintenance-free, accessible from anywhere.

Answer 1035

A serverless model where code runs in response to events without managing servers (e.g., AWS Lambda).

Answer 1036

Virtual desktop environment delivered from the cloud (e.g., Amazon WorkSpaces).

Answer 1037

Container management and deployment provided by the cloud (e.g., Google Kubernetes Engine).

Answer 1038

Public, Private, Hybrid, and Community.

Answer 1039

Services provided over the internet, shared among multiple users (e.g., AWS, Azure).

Answer 1040

Cloud infrastructure dedicated to a single organisation, often on-premises or hosted privately.

Answer 1041

Combines public and private clouds to leverage both scalability and control.

Answer 1042

Shared infrastructure for a specific group of organisations with common concerns.

Answer 1043

Delivery of computing services (servers, storage, databases, networking, software) over the internet ("the cloud")

Answer 1044

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service.

Answer 1045

Users can provision computing resources automatically without human intervention from the provider.

Answer 1046

A developer spins up a virtual server instantly through a cloud dashboard.

Answer 1047

Services are accessible over the network via standard devices like laptops, smartphones, and tablets,

Answer 1048

Users can access resources anywhere, anytime, enhancing mobility and productivity.

Answer 1049

Cloud resources (storage, processing, memory) are shared among multiple uers using multi-tenant models.

Answer 1050

Efficient resource utilisation, cost reduction, and scalability.

Answer 1051

Resources can be quickly scaled up or down based on demand.

Answer 1052

A website automatically gets more virtual servers during a traffic spike.

Answer 1053

Cloud systems automatically monitor, control, and report resource usage, enabling pay-as-you-go billing.

Answer 1054

CPU usage, storage, network bandwidth, and number of active users.

Answer 1055

Multiple users share the same physical resources securely and efficiently.

Answer 1056

Users can deploy resources without requesting provider intervention.

Answer 1057

Elasticity: automatic and dynamic adjustment. Scalability: manual or planned adjustment to meet demand.

Answer 1058

Cloud can recover quickly from failures to maintain availability.

Answer 1059

Users do not need to know the physical location of resources - the cloud abstracts it.

Answer 1060

Running a virtual machine (VM) on a local client device, such as a laptop or desktop, using virtualisation software.

Answer 1061

To test, run, or isolate operating systems and applications without affecting the host machine.

Answer 1062

Software that creates and manages virtual machines.

Answer 1063

Type 1 (bare-metal) and Type 2 (hosted).

Answer 1064

Type 2 (hosted) - runs on top of the host OS.

Answer 1065

VMware Workstation, VirtualBox, Parallels Desktop, Hyper-V (Windows client version).

Answer 1066

A software-based emulation of a physical computer running its own OS and applications.

Answer 1067

CPU, RAM, storage, and network interfaces of the host machine.

Answer 1068

A file on the host system that stores the guest OS and its data.

Answer 1069

A saved state of a VM that can be restored later to revert changes.

Answer 1070

The process of systematically identifying, diagnosing, and resolving problems in computer hardware, software, or networks.

Answer 1071

1. Identify the problem, 2. Establish a theory, 3. Test the theory, 4. Establish a plan, 5. Verify full system functionality, 6. Document findings.

Answer 1072

To gather information and clearly understand the issue before acting.

Answer 1073

Question the user, identify recent changes, observe symptoms, and check for error messages.

Answer 1074

Event Viewer, Device Manager, Task Manager, system logs.

Answer 1075

Develop possible explanations for the problem

Answer 1076

Start with simple causes first (Occam's razor)

Answer 1077

"The PC won't turn on - maybe the power cable is unplugged.

Answer 1078

Test you hypothesis to confirm or rule out the cause.

Answer 1079

Move to Step 4 - create and implement a plan of action.

Answer 1080

Go back to Step 2 and form a new theory.

Answer 1081

Develop and apply a fix that minimises user impact and downtime.

Answer 1082

Back up, schedule downtime, and get necessary approvals.

Answer 1083

"Replace the faulty power supply after confirming it's the cause"

Answer 1084

Test the system, confirm full operation, and ensure no new issue.

Answer 1085

It prevents recurring problems and ensures user satisfaction.

Answer 1086

It helps with future troubleshooting, provides accountability, and builds a knowledge base.

Answer 1087

Problem description, root cause, fix applied, verification steps, and time taken.

Answer 1088

Replacing parts or reinstalling software before identifying the real cause.

Answer 1089

Simple fixes (like loose cables or rebooting) solve a large percentage of issues.

Answer 1090

Calm, patient, and methodical - avoid guessing or rushing.

Answer 1091

Check monitor power, cable connections, and input source; reseat or replace the GPU or RAM if necessary.

Answer 1092

Verify the video cable is properly connected; try a different port of graphics card output.

Answer 1093

Check refresh rate, resolution settings, and loose cables; update or reinstall graphics drivers.

Answer 1094

Possible overheating GPU or bad video memory - clean and ensure fans are working

Answer 1095

Check the power cable, outlet, and PSU switch; test with a known working power supply

Answer 1096

Possible short circuit, bad PSU, CPU overheating, or loose power connector.

Answer 1097

Check motherboard standby power LED, front panel connector, and PSU voltage switch (110V/220V).

Answer 1098

Hardware initialisation errors during POST - each pattern points to a specific component (RAM, GPU, CPU, etc.)

Answer 1099

Memory (RAM) issue - reseat or replace RAM modules

Answer 1100

Commonly a video card problem

Answer 1101

Possibly bad motherboard, CPU, or PSU.

Answer 1102

Likely faulty RAM or incompatible modules. Test with Windows Memory Diagnostic or MemTest86

Answer 1103

Check compatibility, ensure proper seating, and confirm supported speed and voltage.

Answer 1104

Reseat RAM, clean contacts, or try one stick at a time.

Answer 1105

Check boot order in BIOS, ensure drive detection, and verify SATA/power connections.

Answer 1106

Impending hard drive failure - back up data immediately and replace the drive.

Answer 1107

Could be fragmented HDD, bad sectors, or low disk space. Run CHKDSK or SDD/HDD diagnostic tools.

Answer 1108

Update BIOS, enable AHCI mode, and check for firmware updates.

Answer 1109

Try different USB port, replace batteries (if wireless), and reinstall drivers.

Answer 1110

Check Device Manager, try another port, or update chipset/USB drivers.

Answer 1111

Verify power, cables, and drivers; restart spooler service; try printing a test page.

Answer 1112

Usually due to overheating - clean fans and vents, reapply thermal paste, ensure good airflow.

Answer 1113

Possible dust buildup or incorrect fan control settings in BIOS.

Answer 1114

Check heat sink mounting, thermal paste, and fan operation

Answer 1115

Check power connectors, ensure it's fully seated, and update BIOS if needed.

Answer 1116

Ensure antenna connections, drivers, and wireless adapter are enabled.

Answer 1117

Stop immediately - possible short circuit or blown capacitor. Replace affected component.

Answer 1118

Could be falling PSU or motherboard VRM issue. Test with a PSU tester or known-good unit.

Answer 1119

Check front panel header connection and cable orientation.

Answer 1120

Identify the symptoms - e.g. "No boot device," slow performance, missing partitions, or strange noises.

Answer 1121

HDDs (magnetic), SSDs (flash-based), and optical drives (CD/DVD/Blu-ray)

Answer 1122

- Check SATA/power cable connections - Try another port or cable - Enable AHCI mode - Update the BIOS/firmware

Answer 1123

Ensure it's initialise and partitioned in Disk Management.

Answer 1124

Check Device Manager, enable AHCI, and update firmware.

Answer 1125

- Verify boot order in BIOS - Check if drive is recongnised - Repair boot records using bootrec /fixmbr or /fixboot.

Answer 1126

Possibly disconnected boot drive, corrupt OS, or bad SATA port.

Answer 1127

Possible failing drive, bad sectors, or disk nearing capacity - run CHKDSK or manufacturer diagnostics.

Answer 1128

Check TRIM is enabled and firmware is updated.

Answer 1129

May indicate background indexing, malware, or failing drive.

Answer 1130

Mechanical failure - back up data immediately and replace the drive

Answer 1131

Power surge or short - replace drive, check PSU and cables.

Answer 1132

Ensure proper ventilation and no dust buildup.

Answer 1133

Use Disk Management or tools like TestDisk to recover partitions.

Answer 1134

File system corruption - attempt data recovery before formatiing.

Answer 1135

Check NTFS permissions, ownership, or possible malware infection.

Answer 1136

Try multiple discs, clean the lens, or check drivers in Device Manager.

Answer 1137

Use the manual eject hole or check for mechanical jams.

Answer 1138

Verify power/data connections, try different SATA port.

Answer 1139

Try different USB port/cable, reinstall drivers, or check Disk Management.

Answer 1140

File system corruption - try data recovery tools.

Answer 1141

May be insufficient power, loose cable, or faulty USB controller.

Answer 1142

CHKDSK (Windows) or fsck (Linux).

Answer 1143

CrystalDiskInfo, HD Tune, or manufacturer utilities (e.g. Seagate SeaTools, WD Dashboard).

Answer 1144

bootrec /fixboot or bootrec /fixmbr in Windows Recovery.

Answer 1145

- Keep airflow clean - Use surge protection - Perform regular backups - Avoid physical shocks

Answer 1146

Keep TRIM enabled, avoid defragmentation, and ensure firmware updates.

Answer 1147

Check monitor power, video cable, and input source; verify GPU and RAM are seated properly.

Answer 1148

Check the video cable connection; try another port, cable, or monitor; ensure GPU is functioning.

Answer 1149

Check for video card failure or loose connections - interpret POST beep codes to identify the issue.

Answer 1150

Check BIOS display settings or default display output (especially if using a discrete GPU).

Answer 1151

Likely backlight or inverter failure (for older LCDs)

Answer 1152

Disable adaptive brightness or power-saving mode in OS settings.

Answer 1153

Could be PWM flicker - update firmware or replace the display panel.

Answer 1154

Incorrect resolution - set display to its native resolution in OS settings.

Answer 1155

The refresh rate or resolution exceeds monitor capabilities - boot in safe mode and adjust settings.

Answer 1156

Check display configuration in OS; ensure graphics card supports the setup; use correct cable type (HDMI, DisplayPort, DVI).

Answer 1157

HDMI, DisplayPort, DVI, VGA.

Answer 1158

HDMI and DisplayPort.

Answer 1159

Bent pins, loose screws, and damaged connectors.

Answer 1160

No signal, flickering, or intermittent black screens.

Answer 1161

Reinstall or roll back the graphics driver; check Device Manager for errors.

Answer 1162

Reinstall display drivers or graphics control software (NVIDIA/AMD/Intel).

Answer 1163

Remove old drivers, reset BIOS, and connect monitor to the correct GPU output.

Answer 1164

Possible dust buildup or failed fan - clean or replace.

Answer 1165

Indicates GPU overheating or VRAM issues - check cooling and thermal paste.

Answer 1166

Check GPU temps, power connectors, and PSU wattage.

Answer 1167

GPU may be disabled in BIOS or faulty - enable it or test in another system.

Answer 1168

Set primary display adapter in BIOS or GPU control panel

Answer 1169

GPU-Z, MSI Afterburner, or HWMonitor.

Answer 1170

Display Settings or Device Manager.

Answer 1171

Test on another PC or try built-in monitor diagnostics (many Dell/HP displays include this).

Answer 1172

- Keep GPU drivers up to date - Maintain clean airflow and dust-free fans - Use quality cables and surge protection - Avoid overclocking beyond safe limits.

Answer 1173

Check battery charge, charger cable, and power adapter; try a different outlet or wireless charger.

Answer 1174

Battery may be worn out or not charging properly - test with another charger or replace the battery.

Answer 1175

Perform a soft reset or factory reset; may need to reinstall firmware (use recovery mode).

Answer 1176

Could be overheating, battery calibration issue, or software crash - check for updates or reset.

Answer 1177

Check for background apps, high screen brightness, and location/Bluetooth/Wi-Fi left on; recalibrate or replace the battery.

Answer 1178

Use original charger, avoid charging under pillows, and check for faulty charging circuits or battery swelling.

Answer 1179

Stop using immediately - replace battery; swollen batteries are dangerous.

Answer 1180

Try different cable/adapter, clean charging port, or check for lint/debris blocking the pins.

Answer 1181

Check SIM card, airplane mode, and network settings; reseat or replace SIM.

Answer 1182

Restart router and phone, forget and reconnect to network, or reset network settings.

Answer 1183

Ensure Bluetooth is on, device is discoverable, and delete/re-pair the connection.

Answer 1184

Verify APN settings, data plan, and network mode (e.g. LTE, 3G).

Answer 1185

Reboot device, clean the screen, or remove screen protector; may require digitizer replacement.

Answer 1186

Replace digitizer glass; backup data in case screen fails completely.

Answer 1187

Could be hardware defect or loose display connector; try restarting or safe mode.

Answer 1188

Likely backlight or LCD issue - requires repair or replacement.

Answer 1189

Check volume levels, mute settings, and Bluetooth (might be connected to another device).

Answer 1190

Clean speaker grills; check for water damage or hardware failure.

Answer 1191

Try different headphones, check for debris in the port, or reset audio settings.

Answer 1192

Check app permissions, blockages, or test in voice recorder app.

Answer 1193

Restart device, clear app cache, or reinstall camera app.

Answer 1194

Clean the lens; ensure no case obstruction; recalibrate if possible.

Answer 1195

Test with flashlight app; could be hardware failure or settings issue.

Answer 1196

Enable auto-rotation; check accelerometer sensor using diagnostic tools.

Answer 1197

Delete unused apps, cache, photos/videos, or move data to cloud or SD card.

Answer 1198

Clear cache/data, update or reinstall the app.

Answer 1199

Check background apps, clear cached files, or perform factory reset.

Answer 1200

Reinsert or format the card, try in another device, or clean contacts

Answer 1201

Use Find My Device / iCloud to reset, or perform factory reset (data loss likely).

Answer 1202

Boot into safe mode, uninstall suspicious apps, and installs a mobile antivirus.

Answer 1203

Check privacy settings and reapply permissions manually.

Answer 1204

May be stuck or worn out - test with accessibility settings (on-screen buttons).

Answer 1205

Inspect for bent pins, debris, corrosion - may need port replacement.

Answer 1206

Clean lens gently; for cracks, replace module.

Answer 1207

Use built-in diagnostics codes (e.g. *#0*# for Samsung) or apps like Device Info HW.

Answer 1208

Keep software updated, avoid extreme temperatures, and limit background apps.

Answer 1209

Always backup to cloud or external storage before attempting resets.

Answer 1210

Verify power, connections, paper, and ink/toner; ensure it's as the default printer and has no pending jobs in the queue.

Answer 1211

Dirty roller, worn paper feed parts, using the wrong paper type or size, or overfilled trays.

Answer 1212

Replace or refill ink/toner, clean print heads or laser drum, and check for clogged nozzles.

Answer 1213

Dirty or damaged drum, dirty print heads, or a problem with toner distribution.

Answer 1214

A faulty or dirty drum or fuser not fully discharging between pages (common in laser printers).

Answer 1215

The print job is too large for the printer's RAM - reduce resolution or add more memory.

Answer 1216

Ensure the printer and PC are on the same Wi-Fi, restart both devices, and re-add the printer via IP or hostname.

Answer 1217

Incorrect or missing drivers - reinstall the correct printer driver or use a generic one.

Answer 1218

Cancel all documents in the print queue, restart the print spooler service, and resend the job.

Answer 1219

Ink not drying properly, dirty print heads, or wrong paper type.

Answer 1220

Corrupt print drivers or incorrect printer language setting (e.g., PCL vs PostScript).

Answer 1221

Faulty USB cable, wrong port, or missing driver - try another port or reinstall drivers.

Answer 1222

Indicates the laser printer's fuser assembly is failing or overheating - may need replacement.

Answer 1223

Incorrect alignment settings, dirty rollers, or software calibration issues.

Answer 1224

The chip on the new cartridge may not be recognised - clean contacts or reset the printer's toner counter.

Answer 1225

Identify the problem - gather information, verify connections, and check if it affects one or multiple devices.

Answer 1226

Check cables, Wi-Fi connection, NIC (Network Interface Card), and LED link lights.

Answer 1227

The DHCP server is unreachable - the device self-assigns a local address.

Answer 1228

Check DHCP settings, restart the NIC, release/renew the IP address using ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew.

Answer 1229

The NIC works, but the issue is with network configuration or external connectivity.

Answer 1230

Possible DNS or gateway issue - check DNS server settings and default gateway.

Answer 1231

DHCP failure, wrong IP configuration, cable issues, or weak Wi-Fi signal.

Answer 1232

Routing problem, downed network device, or incorrect subnet mask.

Answer 1233

ping command - verifies if a host is reachable on the network.

Answer 1234

Shows each hop between your device and the destination - used to find where packets stop.

Answer 1235

Displays IP configuration details like address, subnet mask, and gateway.

Answer 1236

Loose cables, interference (for Wi-Fi), overheating switch, or duplex mismatch.

Answer 1237

One device uses half-duplex and the other uses full-duplex - causes collisions and slow speed.

Answer 1238

Bandwidth congestion, malware, faulty cables, or incorrect NIC speed settings.

Answer 1239

Cable tester or continuity tester.

Answer 1240

Wi-Fi analyser.

Answer 1241

Two devices share the same IP - caused by static IP overlap or DHCP misconfiguration.

Answer 1242

Release and renew IP address or change one device's IP manually.

Answer 1243

Incorrect DNS settings, downed DNS server, or ISP DNS issue.

Answer 1244

Flush DNS cache (ipconfig /flushdns), set a public DNS (8.8.8.8), restart the DNS client service.

Answer 1245

Faulty or disconnected cable, damaged port, or disable NIC.

Answer 1246

Packet sniffer or protocol analyser (e.g., Wireshark).

Answer 1247

Tests NIC functionality without connecting to the network.

Answer 1248

To trace and identify cables in a wiring closet or wall.

Answer 1249

Multimeter.

Answer 1250

Open Systems Interconnection - a seven-layer model for network communication.

Answer 1251

Seven layers.

Answer 1252

Provides a standard framework to understand, design, and troubleshoot network communication.

Answer 1253

Handles raw transmission of bits over a physical medium (cables, fiber, radio).

Answer 1254

Hubs, repeaters, cables, fiber optics, wireless radios.

Answer 1255

Electrical signals, voltage, pin layouts, and data rates.

Answer 1256

Provides node-to-node data transfer and handles error detection/correction on frames.

Answer 1257

Ethernet (802.3), PPP, Frame Relay, MAC addresses.

Answer 1258

Switches, bridges, and network interface cards (NICs).

Answer 1259

Handles logical addressing and routing of packets between networks.

Answer 1260

IP (IPv4, IPv6), ICMP, OSPF, BGP.

Answer 1261

Routers and layer 3 switches.

Answer 1262

Provides end-to-end communication and ensures reliable data transfer.

Answer 1263

TCP (connection-oriented), UDP (connectionless).

Answer 1264

Segmentation, error checking, flow control, and retransmission.

Answer 1265

Manages sessions/communication dialogues between applications.

Answer 1266

Establishes, maintains, and terminates connections (sessions).

Answer 1267

NetBIOS, RPC (Remote Procedure Call).

Answer 1268

Translates, formats, and encrypts/decrypts data for the application layer.

Answer 1269

Data compression, encryption, character encoding (ASCII, EBCDIC)

Answer 1270

SSL/TLS encrypts data before sending it to Layer 7.

Answer 1271

Provides network services directly to end-user applications.

Answer 1272

HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, SMTP, DNS, Telnet, POP3, IMAP.

Answer 1273

It does not create applications; it only provides the interface to network servies.

Answer 1274

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical.

Answer 1275

No connectivity, link lights off, loose cables, or damaged ports.

Answer 1276

Check cables, reseat connectors, replace damaged cables, test with a cable tester or multimeter.

Answer 1277

A broken Ethernet cable causes the NIC link light to stay off.

Answer 1278

Devices on the same network can't communicate; MAC address or ARP problems; switch port issues.

Answer 1279

Check switch port configurations, verify VLAN assignments, and clear tables if needed.

Answer 1280

A PC connected to the wrong VLAN cannot reach other devices in its department.

Answer 1281

Can't reach external networks, wrong IP address, or gateway unreachable.

Answer 1282

Use ping, ipconfig, and tracert; check IP/subnet/gateway; verify routing tables.

Answer 1283

You can ping local devices but not the internet - gateway or routing issue.

Answer 1284

Specific applications (like HTTP or FTP) fail while others work; connection resets.

Answer 1285

Check firewall or ACL settings blocking ports; use netstat to view active connections.

Answer 1286

A firewall blocks port 443, preventing HTTPS access.

Answer 1287

Sessions drop unexpectedly, users disconnected frequently, or authentication fails.

Answer 1288

Check session timeout settings, reestablish connections, and verify credentials or tokens.

Answer 1289

A remote desktop session disconnects after a few minutes due to timeout configuration.

Answer 1290

Encrypted websites or files fail to open, SSL/TLS errors, or corrupted data.

Answer 1291

Verify encryption certificates, update software handling file formats, and check encoding.

Answer 1292

"SSL certificate expired" prevents secure login to a website.

Answer 1293

App won't connect, slow web response, or incorrect DNS resolution.

Answer 1294

Check service configurations, DNS records, browser or app settings, and restart applications.

Answer 1295

You can ping a website's IP but not browse it - likely a DNS or HTTP service issue.

CompTIA A+ Flashcards

(1353 cards)