Homework Flashcards

1
Q

When a bank issues a loan to a customer,

A

the composition of bank assets changes so that bank reserves are decreased and the value of bank loans is increased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following statements about fiat money is FALSE?
A. With fiat money, there is no risk of counterfeiting.
B. Fiat money is money whose value derives entirely from its official status as a means of exchange.
C. With fiat money, there is the risk that governments will increase the money supply at times when it is to their own advantage.
D. With fiat money, the supply of money can be adjusted more easily than with commodity money.

A

A. With fiat money, there is no risk of counterfeiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the United States, what is the approximate minimum reserve ratio for checkable bank deposits?

A

10 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Because money is a commonly accepted measure used to set prices and make economic calculations, we say that it is
A

A. a unit of account.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The arrangement in which the Federal Reserve stands ready to lend money to banks in trouble is known as

A

the discount window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Because money is an asset that can be traded for goods and services, we say that it is

A

a medium of exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A medium of exchange that has intrinsic value in other uses is known as

A

commodity money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Suppose a bank finds itself with $3,000 in excess reserves. If the banking system faces a 20 percent minimum reserve requirement, what is the maximum amount of the potential increase in the money supply?

A

15,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The fraction of customer deposits that a bank holds as reserves is known as

A

the reserve ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What name is given to the process of assembling several different loans into a pool and then selling shares in the pool?

A

Securitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The excess of a bank’s assets over its bank deposits and other liabilities is known as

A

the bank’s capital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following statements about the relationship between M1 and M2 is TRUE?
A. M1 is larger than M2, because M2 does not include currency in circulation.
B. M2 is larger than M1, because M2 includes near-moneys, and M1 does not.
C. Of these two measures of the money supply, M2 is the narrower definition.
D. M1 is larger than M2, because M1 includes near-moneys, and M2 does not.

A

B. M2 is larger than M1, because M2 includes near-moneys, and M1 does not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The money multiplier is the ratio of

A

the money supply to the monetary base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. As people choose to hold more of their money as currency, rather than as checkable deposits, the size of the money multiplier will be reduced.
B. Following the collapse of Lehman Brothers, currency in circulation became a larger fraction of the monetary base than it typically is.
C. In January 2012, the monetary base was actually larger than M1.
D. In January 2012, the money multiplier was less than one.

A

B. Following the collapse of Lehman Brothers, currency in circulation became a larger fraction of the monetary base than it typically is.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When the Federal Reserve buys and sells U.S. Treasury bills, this is known as

A

open-market operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When a bank borrows reserves from the Fed itself, it is said to be borrowing at ____________

A

the discount window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Banks typically borrow in the federal funds market when they have insufficient funds to ____________________

A

meet the reserve requirement of the Federal Reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A change in reserve requirements or a change in the discount rate will ____________________

A

have an effect on the money supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The seven members of the Federal Reserve Board of Governors

A

are appointed by the U.S. president and must be approved by Congress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The monetary base is the sum of ________________

A

currency in circulation and reserves held by banks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many regional Federal Reserve banks are there?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

To increase the interest rate, the Federal Reserve will _______ U.S. Treasury bills, and this will have the effect of _______ the money supply.

A

sell; decreasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Monetary policy that increases the demand for goods and services is known as

A

expansionary monetary policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The short-run effect of an increase in the money supply is that

A

the aggregate price level increases, and real output also increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An increase in the money supply will lead to a short-run _______ in investment spending, due to the resulting _______ interest rate.

A

increase; lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is measured on the horizontal axis when we draw a money demand curve?

A

The quantity of money demanded by the public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The Federal Open Market Committee meets _______ times per year.

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When long-term interest rates are higher than short-term rates, the market is signaling that

A

it expects short-term rates to rise in the future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In the long run, a monetary expansion

A

raises the aggregate price level but has no effect on real GDP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The downward slope of the money demand curve shows that

A

people hold more money when interest rates are lower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The advent of ATM machines has

A

shifted the demand for money to the left.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Selling Treasury bills will _________ the money supply

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Buying treasury bills will _____________ the money supply

A

increase (shift to right)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When the Federal Reserve undertakes actions to decrease the money supply, the money supply curve shifts to the _______, and the equilibrium interest rate _______.

A

left; increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Selling Treasury bills _________ the interest rate

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If the current interest rate is below the target rate, the Federal Reserve will

A

sell U.S. Treasury bills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The liquidity preference model of the interest rate asserts that

A

the interest rate is established by the interaction of the supply and demand for money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

An increase in the money supply shifts aggregate demand to the _______, thereby causing a _______ level of real output in the short run.

A

right; higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If the economy starts out in long-run macroeconomic equilibrium, the long-run effect of an increase in the money supply is to

A

leave real GDP unchanged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

An increase in the aggregate price level

A

will cause an increase in the demand for money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The opportunity cost of holding money

A

A. is higher when interest rates are higher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When short-term interest rates fell between 2007 and 2008,

A

the opportunity cost of holding money decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In the AD–AS model, the short-run aggregate supply curve will shift to the left when _______________________

A

there is an increase in nominal wages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Shifting Phillips curve left is a result of a ___________ shock

A

positive supply shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The unemployment rate at which inflation does not change over time is known as the

A

nonaccelerating inflation rate of unemployment.

46
Q

Disinflation is ________________

A

the process of bringing down inflation that has become embedded in expectations.

47
Q

The reduction in the purchasing power of money caused by inflation is known as

A

The inflation tax

48
Q

In countries with persistently high inflation, increases in the money supply

A

are quickly translated into changes in the inflation rate.

49
Q

What is measured on the horizontal axis of a graph depicting the short-run Phillips curve?

A

Unemployment rate

50
Q

The actual rate of unemployment will be equal to the natural rate of unemployment when

A

actual aggregate output is equal to potential output.

51
Q

To pursue a strategy of disinflation, policy makers must

A

keep the unemployment rate above its natural rate for an extended period.

52
Q

The short-run Phillips curve represents a trade-off between which two variables?

A

Inflation and unemployment rates

53
Q

In the classical model of the price level,

A

the real quantity of money is always at its long-run equilibrium level.

54
Q

A liquidity trap arises when

A

conventional monetary policy is ineffective because nominal interest rates are up against the zero lower bound.

55
Q

What is the effect of an expansionary monetary policy in the AD–AS model?

A

This will shift aggregate demand to the right, thereby increasing the price level.

56
Q

Governments are most likely to print money as a way of paying expenses when

A

a large budget debt has been incurred and further borrowing is not a workable option.

57
Q

In the long run, a persistent attempt to reduce unemployment at the expense of higher inflation

A

will cause accelerating inflation

58
Q

In providing funds to financial institutions when they are unable to borrow in private credit markets, a central bank serves as

A

a lender of last resort

59
Q

A financial institution that engages in maturity transformation without accepting deposits is known as

A

a shadow bank

60
Q

What term is applied to situations in which the failure of one financial institution increases the odds that another will fail?

A

Financial contagion

61
Q

Which of the following is the most direct consequence of a credit crunch?

A

Businesses and consumers cut back on spending

62
Q

As a financial panic occurs,

A

people hold more cash, believing financial institutions to be unsafe.

63
Q

What term is given to the situation in which asset prices reach unreasonably high levels due to the expectation of further price gains?

A

An asset bubble

64
Q

Which of the following was NOT a major contributing factor to the U.S. financial crisis of 2008?
A. A vicious circle of deleveraging
B. An asset bubble in the housing market
C. An unregulated shadow banking system
D. A persistently high unemployment rate

A

D. A persistently high unemployment rate

65
Q

In the decade leading up to the 2007 financial crisis, the shadow banking sector ___________

A

increased in size

66
Q

Depository banks perform all of the following functions EXCEPT
A. influencing the money supply.
B. maturity transformation.
C. providing liquidity for savers.
D. printing money.

A

D. printing money.

67
Q

The system of bank regulation put in place following the Great Depression included all of the following

A

Capital requirements

Reserve requirements

Deposit insurance

68
Q

The major financial crises that occured between 1973 and 1907 all resulted in ______________________

A

economic downturns

69
Q

In the aftermath of a banking crisis,

A

banks tend to hold on to more excess reserves.

70
Q

Depository banks borrow on a _______ basis from depositors and lend on a ______ basis to others.

A

short-term; long- term

71
Q

In 2010, Congress passed the “Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act” to regulate activities in financial markets. This legislation is more commonly known as

A

the Dodd-Frank bill

72
Q

What term is applied to the circumstance in which borrowers cannot acquire credit?

A

credit crunch

73
Q

Which three countries experienced major banking crises in the early 1990s?

A

Finland, Sweden, and Japan

74
Q

The historical record of the Great Depression shows that

A

there was a credit crunch in the years 1931 and 1932.

75
Q

During a vicious circle of deleveraging

A

financial institutions sell assets at deeply discounted prices in order to raise cash.

76
Q

When a shadow bank sells an asset with the agreement that it will buy it back for a higher price after a brief time interval, it is engaged in a(n)

A

repo

77
Q

The term macroeconomics first appeared in

A

1933

78
Q

The Friedman-Phelps hypothesis predicted that

A

the apparent trade-off between inflation and unemployment would disappear once inflationary expectations became entrenched.

79
Q

New classical macroeconomics asserts that

A

shifts in aggregate demand affect only the aggregate price level, leaving aggregate output unchanged.

80
Q

All else equal, increases in the interest rate tend to

A

decrease investment spending

81
Q

The viewpoint that asserts that GDP will grow steadily if the money supply grows steadily is known as

A

monetarism

82
Q

In responding to the financial crisis of 2008, the Federal Reserve

A

made large-scale purchases of private assets

83
Q

Milton Friedman argued that the expansionary effects of an increase in government spending

A

are partially offset by an accompanying rise in interest rates.

84
Q

The natural rate hypothesis

A

limits the role of activist macroeconomic policy.

85
Q

According to the classical view, an expansionary monetary policy

A

will increase aggregate demand, thereby raising the aggregate price level.

86
Q

In the classical view, a leftward shift of aggregate demand results in

A

a lower aggregate price level with an unchanged level of real GDP.

87
Q

Keynes used the term animal spirits to refer to what we now know as

A

business confidence

88
Q

According to the natural rate hypothesis, inflation will accelerate over time unless

A

unemployment is high enough that the actual inflation rate equals the expected inflation rate.

89
Q

Since 1980, the velocity of money has been ________________________

A

somewhat erratic and unpredictable

90
Q

Expansionary fiscal policy put in place before the 1972 U.S. presidential election resulted in______________of inflation after the election.

A

sharp acceleration

91
Q

The American economist who pioneered the measurement of business cycles was

A

Wesley Mitchell

92
Q

Milton Friedman’s analysis of the economy led him to advocate

A

the use of a monetary policy rule

93
Q

A key finding of Friedman and Schwartz in their research regarding the monetary history of the United States was that business cycles were associated with fluctuations in

A

the money supply

94
Q

If interest rates are higher in Canada than in the United States, then

A

capital will flow from the United States to Canada.

95
Q

When a currency becomes more valuable in terms of other currencies, we say that it

A

has appreciated.

96
Q

A country has a fixed exchange rate when

A

the government keeps the exchange rate near a particular target.

97
Q

A country’s balance of payments accounts are

A

a summary of its transactions with other countries

98
Q

If a Brazilian citizen working in the United States sends part of her earnings to family members in Sao Paulo, this transaction is considered to be

A

an international transfer

99
Q

An increase in the established value of a currency governed by a fixed exchange rate regime is known as

A

a reavaluation

100
Q

Money flowing into the U.S. from foreigners who purchase U.S. assets is the positive component of the U.S. financial account.

A
101
Q

Foregin exchange controls distort ____________________

A

incentives for international trade

102
Q

When the exchange rate changes from (5.5 pesos = 1 dollar) to (6.5 pesos = 1 dollar), the peso has ________ and the dollar has ________.

A

depreciated, appreciated

103
Q

In an open economy with a floating exchange rate, a lowering of the domestic interest rate will lead to a(n) ______ of the currency, which will _______ exports.

A

depreciation; increase

104
Q

The sale of American-made Boeing aircraft to an airline in the United Arab Emirates is considered to be

A

a sale or purchase of goods and services

105
Q

International differences in the demand for funds primarily reflect

A

underlying differences in investment opportunities.

106
Q

Increase in the interest rate shifts demand to the

A

right

107
Q

An increased demand for U.S. dollars on the part of Europeans would cause

A

the dollar to appreciate against the euro

108
Q

Licensing systems that limit the right of citizens to buy foreign currency are known as

A

foreign exchange controls.

109
Q

The stocks of foreign currency that governments use to buy and sell their own currency are known as

A

foreign exchange reserves

110
Q

The real exchange rate is the nominal exchange rate adjusted for differences in

A

the aggregate price level

111
Q
A