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MID I > MID Ia > Flashcards

MID Ia Flashcards

1
Q

what percent of bugs can be cultured?

A

1.00%

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2
Q

DNA hybridization (species), 16S rRNA sequencing (for PCR primers, builds phylogenetic trees)

A

genotyping/phylogenetic

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3
Q

pulsed field gel electrophoresis, restriction fragment length polymorphism

A

molecular subtyping

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4
Q

thick peptidoglycan layer, purple

A

Gram +

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5
Q

thin peptidoglycan layer, red

A

Gram -

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6
Q

intracellular bacteria, won’t stain

A

chlamydia, rickettsia

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7
Q

really small, won’t stain

A

mycoplasma, legionella, helicobacter

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8
Q

acid fast (mycolic acid repels CV+ crystal violet ions) won’t stain

A

mycobacteria (TB) nocardia

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9
Q

have no outer membrane, make spores

A

gram positive

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10
Q

have outer membrane with LPS, no spores

A

gram negative

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11
Q

precursor made in cytoplasm, transferred to membrane pivot lipid (bactoprenol) via nylcoetide, chains crosslinked via transpepsidases

A

peptidoglycan synthesis

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12
Q

blood, bladder, CNS, lower respiratory tract, sinuses

A

normally sterile

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13
Q

typical exogenous bacteria: in water

A

legionella, cholera

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14
Q

typical exogenous bacteria: air/fomites

A

TB, anthrax

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15
Q

typical exogenous bacteria: food

A

salmonella, e. coli

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16
Q

typical exogenous bacteria: insects/animals

A

borrelia, rickettsia

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17
Q

do bacteria have recessive traits?

A

no, they are haploid

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18
Q

conjugation is mostly performed by

A

gram positives

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19
Q

F+ containing plasmid that only

A

sends unidirectionally

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20
Q

CTX phage, cholerae toxin gene product, cholera

A

vibrio cholerae bacteria

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21
Q

lamba phage, shigalike toxin gene product, hemorrhagic diarrhea

A

E. coli bacteria

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22
Q

clostridial phage, botulinum toxin, botulism food poisoning

A

clostridium botulinum

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23
Q

corynephage beta, diphtheria toxin, diphtheria

A

corynebacterium diphtheria

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24
Q

T12 phage, erythrogenic toxins, scarlet fever

A

strep pyogenes

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25
Q

direct binder of TLR-5 and cmacrophages on outside, inflammasome on the inside. Increases virulence

A

flagella. Can be modified to not bind TLR

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26
Q

cleaves pro-caspase 1, leading to inflammation, and (perhaps) apoptosis

A

inflammasome

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27
Q

upregulates Nf-kB via TLR-4, different TLR-4 polymorphisms lead to different degrees of response

A

LPS

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28
Q

cause rho/ras GTPase cascades that alter membrane permeability and allow invasion

A

type III secretory system (injectosome)

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29
Q

close binding of many bacteria and laying down extracellular matrix

A

biofilm

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30
Q

common biofilm on catheters

A

pseudomonas

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31
Q

common biofilm on heart valves

A

s.epidermidis

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32
Q

staph is gram

A

positive cocci in clusters

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33
Q

staph grows in this shape

A

in clusters

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34
Q

this virulence factor in staph binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement activation and phagocytosis

A

protein A

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35
Q

staph commonly colonizes

A

the nose

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36
Q

causes inflammatory disease: skin infection, organ abscesses, pneumona (after influenza virus) endocarditis, osteomyelitis

A

staph

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37
Q

TSS, scalded skin syndrome, rapid onset food poisoning

A

Toxin-mediated disease from staph

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38
Q

resistant to methicillin and nafcillin because of altered penicillin binding protein

A

MRSA

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39
Q

due to superantigen that binds MHCII and T-cell receptor, results in polyclonal T cell activation: fever, vomiting, desquamation, shock, organ failure

A

TSS

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40
Q

due to ingestion of pre-formed toxin, short incubation (2-6 hours), enterotoxin in heat stable, not destroyed by cooking

A

S. aureus food poisoning

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41
Q

all staph makes ____, bad staph (aureus) makes ____as well

A

catalase, coagulase and toxins

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42
Q

infects prosethetic devices and IV catheters with biofilm, contaminates cultures

A

s. epidermidis

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43
Q

s. epidermidis is sensitive to

A

novobiocin

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44
Q

second most common cause of uncomplicated UTI in women

A

s. saphrophyticus

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45
Q

s. saphrophyticus is resistant to

A

novobiocin

46
Q

s. pneumonia is gram

A

positive,

47
Q

s. pneumoniae is shaped like

A

Lancet-shaped gram positive diplococci

48
Q

s. pneumoniae is the most common cause of

A

MOPS: menigitis, otitis media (in children), Pneumonia, Sinusitis

49
Q

s. pneumoniae MOPS are

A

Most Optochin Sensitive

50
Q

associated with rusty sputum, sepsis in sickle cell anemia and splenectomy

A

s. pneumoniae

51
Q

s. pneumoniae is not virulent without

A

capsule (and IgA protease?)

52
Q

alpha hemolytic

A

strep pneumoniae, viridans group

53
Q

cause dental caries, subacute bacterial endocarditis at damaged valves

A

viridans group streptococci

54
Q

is viridans group strep optochin sensitive?

A

no, they live in the mouth because they are not afraid of-the-chin

55
Q

causes pyogenics: pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo

A

strep pyogenes

56
Q

causes toxigenics: scarlet fever, toxic shock-like syndrome, necrotizing fasciitis

A

strep pyogenes

57
Q

causes immunologics: rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis

A

strep pyogenes

58
Q

is strep pyogenes bacitracin resistant?

A

nope! Pyogenes is bacitracin sensitive

59
Q

Antibodies to M protein may enhance defense against ____ but lead to ____

A

strep pyogenes, rheumatic fever

60
Q

ASO titer detects

A

recent s. pyogenes infection

61
Q

criteria for rheumatic fever

A

Joints (polyarthritis) Oheart (carditis) Nodules (subcutaneous) Erythema marginatum Sydenham chorea

62
Q

Impetigo more commonly proceeds

A

glomerulonephritis than pharyngitis

63
Q

scarlet rash with sandpaper texture, strawberry tongue, circumoral pallor

A

scarlet fever

64
Q

is group B strep bacitracin resistant?

A

yep

65
Q

beta hemolytic

A

group A and B strep, listeria, staph aureus

66
Q

moms with strep B colonized vaginas receive

A

prophylactic penicillin (Group B for Babies)

67
Q

produced by strep B, enlarges the area of hemolysis formed by s. aureus

A

CAMP

68
Q

VRE

A

Vancomycin-resistant enterococci, important cause of nosocomial infections

69
Q

colonizes the gut, can cause bacteremia in and subacute endocarditis in colon cancer patients

A

strep bovis (group D strep). “Bovis in the blood, Cancer in the colon”

70
Q

Beta-hemolytic, catalase and coagulase positive

A

staph aureus

71
Q

Beta-hemolytic, catalase negative and bacitracin sensitive

A

s. pyogenes

72
Q

Beta-hemolytic, catalase negative and bacitracin resistant

A

s, agalactiae

73
Q

Beta-hemolytic, tumbles, meningitis in newborns, unpasteurized milk products

A

listeria monocytogenes

74
Q

forms clear area on blood agar

A

Beta-hemolytics

75
Q

form green ring on blood agar

A

alpha hemolytics

76
Q

Alpha-hemolytic, catalase negative and optochin sensitive

A

strep pneumoniae

77
Q

Alpha-hemolytic, catalase negative and optochin resistant

A

viridans group streptococci

78
Q

Novobiocin and Staph

A

NO StRESs: saprophyticus is resistance, epidermidis is sensitive

79
Q

Streptococci and Optochin

A

OVRPS: viridans is resistant, pneumonia is sensitve

80
Q

Streptococci and Bacitracin

A

B-BRAS: group B are resistant, group A are sensitive

81
Q

endocarditis: most likely bugs

A

staph aureus, coag (-) staph, viridans strep, enterococcus

82
Q

endocarditis: after dental procedure

A

viridans strep, HACEK

83
Q

endocarditis: early complication from prosthetic valve

A

Coag (-) staph, S. aureus

84
Q

endocarditis: late complication from prosthetic valve

A

Coag (-) staph, viridans strep

85
Q

endocarditis: GI or GU source

A

enterococci, strep bovis (means colon cancer)

86
Q

endocarditis: Nosocomial

A

s. aureus (+MRSA), G(-) bacteria, candida

87
Q

endocarditis: Duke major criteria

A

two separate cultures positive for typical organism, persistent bacteremia with any organ, evidence of endocardial involvement on echo

88
Q

endocarditis: Duke minor criteria

A

risk factors, fever, septic emboli, infarcs, janeway leasions, splinter hemorrhages, Roth spots, Osler’s nodes

89
Q

endocarditis definite diagnosis: 1. confirmation of vegetation or emboli, or 2.

A

2 major criteria, 1 major plus three minor, or 5 minor criteria

90
Q

1 major, 1 major 1 minor, or 3 minor Duke criteria

A

possible diagnosis of infective endocarditis

91
Q

prosthetic valve, congential heart disease, previous diagnosis of endocarditis, cardiac transplant with valvulopathy, dental procedures where gums are manipulated, procedures in respiratory tract

A

prophylaxis for infective endocarditis

92
Q

most positive organisms in sepsis

A

gram positives

93
Q

SIRS: temp

A

> 100.4 or <96.8

94
Q

SIRS: HR

A

> 90

95
Q

SIRS: RR or pCO2

A

RR>20 or pCO2<32mmHg

96
Q

SIRS: WBC

A

WBC>12K or 10% bands

97
Q

2 SIRS criteria + infection (suspected)

A

sepsis

98
Q

Sepsis + organ hypoperfusion

A

severe sepsis

99
Q

lactic acidosis, high Cr, low protein C, low platelets, high D dimer, jaundice

A

signs of organ involvement in sepsis

100
Q

sever sepsis, hypotension despite resuscitation, SBP40

A

septic shock

101
Q

with gram negatives, ____ start sepsis by triggering TNFs, with gram positives, ____

A

LPS, teichoic acid (endotoxins)

102
Q

exotoxins implicated in sepsis

A

superantigens from s. aureus, and strep pyogens (strep A)

103
Q

K flows out of cells, hyperpolarizes cell, causes vasodilation and increased lactate

A

activation of ATP sensitive K channels (sepsis)

104
Q

increased NO causes vasodilation

A

activation of NO (sepsis)

105
Q

vasopressin increased in early sepsis and then depletes, leading to vasodilation

A

fact!

106
Q

Pulse bounding (high CO), skin warm

A

early sepsis

107
Q

pulse thready (CO down), skin cold, urine output way down (oliguria), low pH, high lactate

A

late sepsis

108
Q

blood cultures before antibiotics, antibiotics within ___ hours in ED, ____ & ____ if fluids don’t bring up BP, increase lactate ordering

A

3 (1 on the floor), vasopressin and norepinephrine (sepsis bundle)

109
Q

normal colonic flora, penicillin resistant, cause UTI, biliary tract infections, and subacute endocarditis (after GI/GU procedures)

A

Enterococci (group D strep)

110
Q

Who has T3SS (injectosome)?

A

Some gram negatives: Shigella (causes bacillary dysentery), Salmonella (typhoid fever), Escherichia coli (food poisoning), Vibrio (gastroenteritis and diarrhea), Burkholderia (glanders), Yersinia (plague), Chlamydia (sexually transmitted disease), Pseudomonas (infects humans, animals and plants)

MID I (8 decks)

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