Week 3 CVS Flashcards

(87 cards)

1
Q

Contra-lateral hemiparesis and sensory loss

Lower extremities > upper

gait problems and stance

stroke in which artery?

A

anterior cerebral artery

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2
Q

Contra-lateral hemiparesis and sensory loss

upper extremity > lower

contralateral homoymous hemianopia

Aphasia

which artery affected by stroke?

A

middle cerebral artery

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3
Q

lacunar strokes are strongly associated with hypertension

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

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4
Q

when does excitotoxicity normally occur in stroke?

A

minutes - hours

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5
Q

Explain excitotoxicty

A

ATP pumps fail

The membrane becomes depolarised

influx of calcium and efflux of potassium

calcium triggers release of glutamate - excitatory neurotransmitter which trigger more calcium influx

overexcites cells, and activates proteases which digest cell proteins -> releasing free radical -> iscahemic cascade in a process of excitotoxicity-> more ions and harmful chemicals

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6
Q

basilar strokes cause people to become very sleepy , why?

A

affects the brainstem - swallowing, breathing, wakefulness

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7
Q

basilar artery strokes symptoms

A
  • brainstem dysfunction - coma, vertigo, nausea , vomiting, ataxia
  • hemiparesis, hemisensory loss
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8
Q

what is the junction called between the sinus of valsalva and the ascending aorta ?

A

sinotubular junction

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9
Q

What is the function of the collagen within the adventitia of elastic arteries?

A

it stops the elastic arteries from stretching beyond physiological limit during systole

is it made out of collagen and elastic fibres

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10
Q

why are false aneurysms more likely to rupture

A

the wall of false anuerysm is made of thin layer of adventitia or surrounding soft tissue

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11
Q

rare disorders that cause aortic aneurism and dissections

A
  • Bicuspid aortic valve
  • Marfans syndrome
  • Syphilis infection
  • Takayasu’s arteritis (granulomatous vasculitis) – stenosis of aorta and main branches
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12
Q

congenital causes of aortic aneurysm

A
  • marfans syndrome
  • aortic coarctation
  • bicuspid aortic valve
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13
Q

signs of aortic coarctation

A
  • cold legs
  • poor leg pulses
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14
Q

if coarctation of aorta is after the left subclavian artery , what would you find by palpating the radial and femoral artery

A
  • no radial radial delay
  • but there IS a right and left radial-femoral delay
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15
Q

if coarctation of aorta is before the left subclavian artery , what would you find by palpating the radial and femoral artery

A

radial radial delay

and RIGHT femoral delay

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16
Q

gene mutation that causes marfans syndrome

A

fibrillin 1 gene

connective tissue weakness/disease

mutlisystem

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17
Q

what does the neck refer to re. aneurysm

A

the last normal piece of artery before the aneurysm begins

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18
Q

how is aneurysms screened for?

A

age 65

Ultrasound offered

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19
Q

at what size of AAA is operated on?

A

once > 5.5cm

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20
Q

aneurysms < 5.5.cm are at hgih risk of rupture

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

< 1% per year

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21
Q

tests to select patients for surgery/fitness for surgery

A
  • ETT
  • CPEX - cardiopulmonary exercise test
  • aortic morphology
  • renal function
  • concurrent illness
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22
Q

EVAR 1 trial open AAA v EVAR stenting result?

A

EVAR - more patients alive in short term

Open AAA - more durable in the long term 6 + years

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23
Q

EVAR 2 trial : EVAR v nothing in old/frail patients resultS?

A

no change in all cause mortality if do nothing

do nothing versus stent = little difference/no benefit

do nothing!

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24
Q

ERAS burst aneurysm score

(Edinburgh ruptured aneurysm score trial)

outline the scoring

A

score of 1-3

  1. Hb < 9
  2. BP < 90
  3. GCS <15 (less than fully conscious)
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25
CT scans can see small volume leaks under 2ml a. true b. false
false
26
phases of CT scan
non-contrast arterial phase (looking for bleeding, aortic aneurysm, arterial stenosis) venous phase nephrogenic phase - kidney tumours, trauma delayed/wash out - washed out of tissue except for any fibrotic tissue/liver tumours/liver still lights up
27
what is usally used for contrast in CT imaging
iodine
28
ultrasound uses the reflection of soundwaves a. true b. false
a. true reflect back to crystal /to electricity
29
explain B-mode ultrasound
2D mode scans anatomical plane - anatomical representation of structure most common
30
explain M-mode ultrasound
shows a fixed plane OVER TIME assess heart valve movement chamber dimension and function converts 2D image onto a time axis
31
what is doppler imaging
shows the direction AND velocity of blood flow as blood flow alters the frequency of US waves returning to crytsal
32
blood flow towards the ultrasound probe is shown in what colour
red
33
blood flow away from the ultrasound probe is usually was colour?
blue
34
alternative to CT and MRI if unable to tolerate usual forms of contrast
ultrasound contrast - made from microbubbles
35
Spiral CT enables acquisition oof image in a single breath hold a. true b. false
a. true thousands of xray detector around patients - less motion artefacts
36
outline cycle of venous insufficiency
1. hypertesnion -> damage to veins -> endothelial leak -> oedma -> increased distance between vien and tissue -> impaired healing/inflammation/damage -> ulceration -> increased distance - >
37
doppler monophasic signal
blood to heart
38
doppler biphasic signal
blood coming back through valves
39
iliac arteries split into what? under the inguinal ligament?
common femerol
40
superficial femoral splits in the the popliteal artery where?
just below the knee
41
embolus
a blood clot, air bubble , object is carried into blood stream and lodges in vessel and causes an obstruction
42
thrombus
blood clot forms in situ within the vascular system of the body and impedes blood flow
43
clinic presentation of acute limb ischaemia 6 ps
Pain Pallor Pulseless Paralysis Poikilothermal (COLD) Paraesthesia (Prickling)
44
what 2 drugs should any patient with established Peripheral arterial disease be taking?
statins - artovastatin anti-platelet - clopidogrel
45
normal ANKLE-BRACHIAL pressure index (ABPI)
1= normal > 0.6 claudication 0.3-0.6 rest pain <0.3 impending
46
1st line test for Peripheral arterial disease
duplex ultrasound but perform magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) before any intervention
47
Complicated atheromatous plaques generally have clinical consequences. a. true b. false
True. These plaques are termed “complicated” once they rupture or fissure, or haemorrhage occurs, or a thrombus forms. These events will often lead to occlusion of the vessel lumen, and therefore cause clinical consequences (such as a stroke or myocardial infarction).
48
When are atheromatous plaques termed complicated
* rupture * fissue * haemorrhage * thrombus leads to occlusion of the vessel and clinical consequences (stroke or MI)
49
ACE inhibitors confer a survival benefit in heart failure. a. true b. false
True – ACE inhibitors have been shown to benefit morbidity and mortality in heart failure. They prevent conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, thus inhibiting the RAAS and reducing preload and afterload.
50
Thyroid function testing is routine in investigation of angina. a. true b. false
True – thyrotoxicosis is a rare cause of angina. It causes increased metabolic demand due to pathologically elevated thyroid hormone levels.
51
Generally the more of the artery lumen a plaque occludes, the more prone to rupture it is. a. true b. false
False – highly stenotic (i.e. plaques that occlude a large proportion of the lumen) plaques often have a thick fibrous cap, and are less vulnerable to rupture.
52
Elevated blood lactate levels are an indication of tissue ischaemia. a. true b. false
True – remember that cells that are deprived of oxygen will undergo anaerobic respiration. Lactate is a product of anaerobic respiration, and can be detected in a blood test. A clinical application of this is that we routinely check lactate levels in patients who have sepsis, as it gives a good indication of how “sick” a person is. Sepsis raises tissue oxygen demand and also limits oxygen delivery due to vasodilation and hypotension.
53
ACE inhibitors should not be given to pregnant patients or patients intending to become pregnant. a. true b. false
True – ACE inhibitors can have adverse effects on the development of the foetal renal system, and are contraindicated in pregnancy.
54
Regarding thrombus formation: The lines of Zahn are formed from alternating bands of red blood cells and lipid. a. true b. false
False – they are alternating bands of RBCs and platelets.
55
A fully-developed atheromatous plaque has a protein core. a. true b. false
False – fully developed atheroma have a lipid core, surrounded by a fibrous tissue cap.
56
describe a fully developed atheroma
lipid core, surrounded by a fibrous tissue cap.
57
Myocardial damage resulting from extreme tachycardia would be classed as a Type 2 myocardial infarction. a. true b. false
True. Type 2 MIs occur when there is a mismatch for whatever reason between myocardial oxygen demand and myocardial oxygen supply (eg tachycardia, anaemia, etc), but the ischaemia is NOT caused by atheromatous coronary artery disease.
58
Type 2 MI
is a mismatch for whatever reason between myocardial oxygen demand and myocardial oxygen supply (eg tachycardia, anaemia, etc), but the ischaemia is NOT caused by atheromatous coronary artery disease
59
Hypercholesterolaemia can directly cause endothelial damage leading to atheromatous plaque formation. a. true b. false
True – chronically elevated blood cholesterol levels can damage the endothelium by increasing local production of oxygen free radicals.
60
Nitrates can be used to give rapid relief of anginal symptoms. a. True b. False
True – the most commonly used is Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN, or “the red spray”) which can be administered under the tongue to produce vasodilation and rapid angina relief.
61
ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), and can cause an increase in blood pressure. a. true b. false
a. true
62
Arteriosclerosis is the formation of focal elevated lesions in the intima of large and medium-sized arteries. a. true b. false
False – this describes atherosclerosis. Careful, because the words sound very similar! Arteriosclerosis is an age-related change that involves the thickening of smooth muscle, intimal fibrosis and duplication of internal elastic laminal layer – all of which also cause luminal narrowing.
63
atherosclerosis
- age-related change that involves the thickening of smooth muscle, intimal fibrosis and duplication of internal elastic laminal layer – all of which also cause luminal narrowing.
64
Severe burns are a risk factor for deep vein thrombosis. a. true b. false
True – anything that increases the coagulability of the blood will increase risk of DVT. Burns or severe trauma will increase the circulating coagulation factors in the blood as the body attempts to heal.
65
Total occlusion of an artery lumen causes reversible ischaemia such as that seen in stable angina. a. true b. false
False – total occlusion of an artery often follows plaque rupture, as this exposes the highly thrombogenic plaque contents to the bloodstream and provokes thrombus formation. It causes non-reversible ischaemia, and can lead to tissue infarction.
66
Ischaemic chest pain (angina) often comes on with exercise as exercise drastically reduces the supply of blood to the cardiac muscle. a. true b. false
False – this is usually a combination of a “supply” and a “demand” issue. As the heart rate and stroke volume increases with exercise, the oxygen demand of the tissue increases as it works harder. Supply is unable to increase to meet this demand, often due to narrowing of the coronary arteries by atheromatous disease, and the tissue becomes ischaemic. There may also be a slight reduce in supply, as the coronary arteries fill during diastole (remember that diastole is reduced as heart rate increases), but this does not cause symptoms in a healthy heart.
67
Blood pressure target in people over 80 should be <135/75mmHg. a. true b. false
False – we tolerate a slightly higher blood pressure in people over 80, as the risks associated with multiple drug treatments including increased risk of falls becomes more of a concern. People over 80 should have a target blood pressure <145/85mmHg.
68
Discrepancy in blood pressure between the right and left arm may be a sign of carotid artery stenosis. a. true b. false
False – this is a clinical finding in coarctation of the aorta.
69
Discrepancy in blood pressure between the right and left arm may be a sign of
coarctation of the aorta
70
Heart failure leads to activation of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone system. a. true b. false
True – reduced cardiac output is registered by the body as reduced circulating volume, and so the salt and water is retained through RAAS activation in an attempt to raise this.
71
Rheumatic fever can cause heart murmurs. a. true b. false
True – rheumatic fever causes inflammation of the heart, and this includes the endocardium, of which the valves are part. Inflammation of the valves can result in valve stenosis, regurgitation, or vegetations, all of which may be clinically detected as murmurs.
72
Rheumatic fever is virtually the only cause of tricuspid stenosis. a. true b. false
False – it is virtually the only cause of mitral stenosis.
73
Myocardial damage is detected by a rise in troponin levels on a blood test. a. true b. false
True – this is one of the standard investigations performed in suspected acute coronary syndromes. Be aware, however, that any state which places stress on the heart (e.g. sepsis, myocarditis, severe tachycardia) can result in a troponin rise, so this is not sufficient to diagnose ACS in isolation.
74
The heart undergoes colliquative necrosis when infarcted. a. true b. false
False – the heart undergoes a process of coagulative necrosis, where the architecture of the dead tissue is largely maintained. Colliquative necrosis involves breakdown of the tissue to a liquid. If this occurred in the heart, we would see ventricular rupture post-MI much more frequently than we do (although it does happen). The brain undergoes colliquative necrosis after an infarction.
75
There is no benefit in stenting atherosclerotic stenotic renal arteries as a treatment for secondary hypertension. a. true b. false
True – three large clinical trials have shown no benefit over medical treatment of secondary hypertension due to renal artery stenosis from atherosclerosis. This is compared to renal artery stenosis due to fibromuscular dysplasia, where hypertension can be reversed by angioplasty and stenting of the renal artery.
76
Coronary artery bypass grafting most commonly involves harvesting one of the long arteries in the leg and grafting it onto the aorta. a. true b. false
False – most commonly, the long saphenous VEIN is used.
77
Atheroma development begins with damage to the arterial endothelium. a. true b. false
True – damage to endothelial lining is the first stage of atheroma formation. This results in a chronic inflammatory response as the artery heals. These two stages occur in a cycle and result in the development of atheromatous plaques.
78
Blood pressure over 160/100mmHg is termed severe hypertension. a. true b. false
False. Regardless of whether it is from ambulatory home monitoring or in the clinic, this would be termed stage 2 hypertension.
79
Regarding myocardial perfusion imaging: if no radiolabelled tracer is seen in the myocardium during exercise, the myocardium is functioning normally. a. true b. false
False – normal myocardium will take up tracer. An absence indicates compromised blood supply to the myocardium.
80
On an ECG, ST-segment depression is a sign of ischaemia. a. true b. false
True – this may appear after exercise during an exercise tolerance test, indicating cardiac ischaemia. ST segment depression may also indicate fixed or ongoing ischaemia, as in a Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
81
Elderly people have high levels of renin, which often is the main driver of hypertension in this age group. a. true b. false
False – older people have lower renin levels, therefore using ACE inhibitors (drugs which block the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II) is less likely to be effective, and they are not the firstline treatment choice in this age group.
82
Hypertensive emergencies require blood pressure to be lowered as rapidly as possible. a. true b. false
False – a careful approach still needs to be taken, as overly-rapid correction of blood pressure can precipitate ischaemic events. Aim to lower blood pressure by 10-20% within the first hour, and then to 160/100mmHg over the next 6 hours.
83
Rheumatic fever presents with painful arthritis of the small joints. a. true b. false
False. Rheumatic fever is a disease of disordered immunity, and classically presents with inflammation of the heart and joints. This typically affects large joints, such as wrists, elbows, knees and ankles.
84
Acute myocardial infarcts are classified depending on whether there is elevation of the PR segment on the ECG. a. true b. false
False – MIs are classified based on the presence or absence of elevation of the ST segment.
85
Hypertension in the elderly is often associated with low blood pressure on standing. a. true b. false
True – orthostatic hypotension is commonly seen in association with hypertension, and is common in the elderly. Management is tricky, and will usually involve a combination of non-pharmacological techniques, and changing drug doses and timing.
86
Premature corneal arcus is a sign of hyperlipidaemia. a. true b. false
True – corneal arcus refers to a pale ring of lipid deposit visible in the peripheral cornea. This is most significant in young patients. It is considered normal in the elderly.
87
The most common form of thromboembolic disease originates from arteries in the legs. a. true b. false
False – the most common source of thromboembolism originates in the deep venous system of the legs. This can travel up the vena cava to the right side of the heart, and then into the pulmonary artery, where it becomes a pulmonary embolism.