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Flashcards in Biochemistry Deck (73)
1

The most strong type of bond is...

LOVE
jks, covalent bonds

2

Electronegativity is...

The attractive force that an atomic nucleus exerts on electrons

3

EN carbon is greater than EN hydrogen. Which is reduced?

Carbon has a greater attractive force for electrons, so it gains electrons, therefore it is reduced and hydrogen is oxidised

4

Reducing agents are themselves oxidised. True/False?

True

5

First law of thermodynamics?

Energy is neither created or destroyed

6

Second law of thermodynamics?

When energy is converted to another form, some of it is lost (never 100% efficient)

7

∆G = the change in free energy = ?

∆H - T∆S
∆G°' + RTln([C][D]/[A][B])

8

Exergonic reactions are where...

Products have less free energy than the reactants
∆G is -ve
Reaction can occur spontaneously

9

Endergonic reactions are where...

Products have greater free energy than the reactants
∆G is +ve
Reaction cannot occur spontaneously

10

The difference between normal standard conditions and biochemical standard conditions is...

pH = 7

11

At equilibrium ∆G = 0. This is characteristic of readily reversible reactions. True/False?

True

12

Reaction spontaneity can be achieved by...

Changing concn of reactants/products
Coupling with highly favourable processes (e.g. with hydrolysis of ATP)
Both of the above help ∆G become -ve

13

Amino acids are subdivided into 4 groups, which are?

Non-polar hydrophobic
Polar uncharged
Acidic (-COOH)
Basic (-NH)

14

The N-terminal of a peptide chain is -ve. True/False?

False
It is +ve due to NH3

15

The C-terminal of a peptide chain is -ve. True/False?

True due to COO-

16

A zwitterion has which type of charge?

None! No net charge

17

Ka = acid dissociation constant = ?

[H+][A-]/[HA]

18

pH = measurement of how many H+ in a solution = ?

-log10[H+]

19

Henderson Hasselbach Equation connects Ka of a weak acid with the pH of a solution containing this acid. The equation is...

pH = pKa + log[A-]/[HA]
pKa - pH = log[HA]/[A-]

20

Primary protein structure describes...

The specific sequence of amino acids in a chain

21

Secondary protein structure describes...

The hydrogen-bonded 3D arrangement of the chain
α-helix (one peptide chain spiralled; right-handed)
B-stranded-sheet or B-pleated-sheet

22

Tertiary protein structure describes...

The arrangement of the chain in space and forces stabilising the structure

23

Quaternary protein structure describes...

Association of non-protein groups to the chain
e.g. haemoglobin, myoglobin

24

What is the central dogma?

DNA is transcribed to RNA, which is translated into protein

25

A nucleoside has...

5C sugar + organic base

26

A nucleotide has...

5C sugar + organic base + phosphate group(s)

27

Pol II synthesises only stable RNA. True/False?

False
Pol II synthesises all RNA. Pol I and III synthesise only stable RNA

28

DNA polymerase has 3 important characteristics

Can only add to existing nucleic acids
Cannot start synthesis on its own
Requires an RNA primer to start replication

29

Enzymes can affect the equilibrium position of a reaction. True/False?

False

30

How do enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction?

Bind to and stablise the transition state and provide alternative reaction pathways

31

Enzyme without a cofactor is called a...

Apoenzyme

32

Enzyme with a cofactor is called a...

Holoenzyme

33

Induced fit model describes enzyme-substrate interaction by...

Binding of substrate induces a conformational change in the enzyme, resulting in complementary fit

34

Trypsin and chymotrypsin work in the ____ and have an optimum pH of _

Small intestine, 7

35

What are isozymes?

Catalyse same reactions as enzymes but have different properties and structure

36

CK is an isozyme. The M form is produced in ____ and the B form is produced in the ___. MB form is produced in the ___

Skeletal muscle, brain, heart

37

Which enzymes carry out phosphorylation?

Kinases

38

What are zymogens?

Inactive precursors of an enzyme

39

Where are trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen formed? Why is it important they are produced inactive?

Pancreas
They would digest the pancreas if active

40

Which enzyme activates trypsinogen? Where does this occur?

Enteropeptidase
Small intestine

41

Vmax is?

The maximal rate of reaction at unlimited substrate concn

42

Km is?

The concn of substrate which gives 50% maximal rate, i.e. 0.5Vmax

43

A low Km means...

An enzyme only needs a little substrate to work at 0.5Vmax (it has high affinity)

44

Vmax can be obtained from a Lineweaver-Burk plot by looking at the interesection with the X axis. True/False?

False
Intersection with X axis is Km; intersection with Y axis is Vmax

45

In competitive inhibition, Vmax is ___ and Km is ___

The same, increased

46

In non-competitive inhibition, Vmax is ___ and Km is ___

Decreased, the same

47

Orthosteric enzymes follow M-M kinetics and the curve is shaped like a ____

Hyperbola

48

Allosteric enzyme do not follow M-M kinetics and the curve is shaped like a ___

Sigmoid

49

In the absence of a substrate, most enzyme subunits are in the inactive _ form. The presence of substrate shifts equilibrium from the inactive form to the active _ form

T (inactive), R (active)

50

GLUT3 is located in the...

Brain

51

GLUT5 is located in the...

Gut

52

In glycolysis, glucose (6C) is converted into...

2 x pyruvate (3C each)

53

In glycolysis, there is a net gain of how many ATP?

2 ATP

54

The _, _ and _ reactions in glycolysis are control points (irreversible as they are very exergonic)

1st, 3rd and final

55

3 enzymes involved in the glycolysis control points

Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase

56

We must reoxidise NADH to form __ in order to continue ATP synthesis after glycolysis

NAD+

57

Pyruvate conversion to lactate occurs when?

Low oxygen - muscle cells work very hard to allow glycolysis to continue
NAD+ is regenerated by oxidation of NADH

58

What is the substrate for the TCA cycle?

Acetyl-CoA

59

Where does TCA cycle occur?

Mitochondria (mainly central matrix and then cristae)

60

What is the fate of pyruvate before TCA cycle?

Enters mitochondria, where PDC catalyses oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
2CO2 released in total

61

Citric acid (6C) is formed by the combination of which 2 molecules?

Oxaloacetate (4C) + Acetyl-CoA (2C)

62

How many cofactors are reduced in total in TCA cycle?

4 - 3x NAD+ and 1x FAD+

63

GDP conversion to GTP is known as...

Substrate level phosphorylation

64

Succinate hydrogenase uses FAD+ as a cofactor. It is the one enzyme of TCA cycle that is located in the central matrix. True/False?

False
It is the only enzyme located in the cristae - all others located in the central matrix

65

Lipids are converted to ______ and then ____ which enters TCA cycle

Fatty acids, Acetyl-CoA

66

Each turn of TCA cycle involves the uptake and release of how many carbon atoms, and in what form?

2C uptake as Acetyl-CoA, 2C released as 2CO2

67

Glycolysis + PDC + TCA cycle reactions = _NADH, _H+, _FADH2

10NADH, 10H+, 2FADH2

68

Each NADH and FADH2 molecule contains how many electrons?

2

69

A -ve electron transfer potential means...

Substance is more likely to donate electrons than hydrogen

70

What is the function of Co-enzyme Q?

Pick up electrons from Complex 1 or 2 and donate them to Complex 3

71

Transfer of electrons through the respiratory chain is coupled to transport of _ from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space

H+

72

Key point of oxidative phosphorylation:
Electrons from NADH and FADH2 reduce O2 to __
e- energy is used to pump protons from the matrix to the _____, causing matrix pH to ____
Protons follow their concn and flow across the membrane - this energy is used to phosphorylate ___ to ___

H2O
Intermembrane space, pH to increase (and intermembrane space pH to decrease)
ADP to ATP

73

1 glucose molecule yields how many ATP molecules in total?

30-32 ATP