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Flashcards in Pathology Deck (67)
1

Pathogenesis is defined as...

The sequence of events from a healthy state to clinical disease

2

Some sequelae of coronary artery thromobosis are?

Myocardial infarction, arrhythmias, ischaemia, angina, heart failure

3

Physical characteristics of inflammation include...

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

4

Redness and heat assoc with inflammation is due to...

Vasodilation within the damaged area, causing increased blood flow and as a result skin temperature

5

Necrosis is defined as...

(premature) Cell death

6

Apoptosis is defined as...
It is useful because...

Programmed cell death
Get rid of damaged, dead cells and debris

7

Resolution is complete restoration of inflamed tissue. Factors favouring this include...

Minimal cell death/damage
Occurrence in an organ/tissue with good regenerative capacity
Short duration/rapid destruction of causal agent

8

Suppuration is...

The formation of pus, made up of living cells, dying cells, dead neutrophils, debris and bacteria

9

Organisation of tissues after inflammation is their replacement by _____ tissue

Granulation

10

Describe how granulation tissue is formed?

Capillaries grow into the inflammatory exudate with macrophages and fibroblasts
Angiogenesis, fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis (forms scars) occurs
Processes regulated by GFs (TNF, EGF)

11

Permanent cells are more susceptible to mutations. True/False?

False
Dividing cells are more susceptible - e.g. skin, gut, bone, hair cells

12

p53 is important in DNA repair. What does it do?

Recognises a base pair sequence alteration and triggers cell death when the DNA is damaged

13

Free radicals are dangerous to membrane integrity. What do they do?

Lipid peroxidation - bind to lipids and reduce their solubility
Broccoli and cabbage have high anti-oxidants that scavenge and destroy free radicals

14

An example of an area where colliquative necrosis would occur?

Brain
Liquid myelin sheath of nerve fibres remains after brain substance dies

15

An example of caseous necrosis?

Tuberculosis

16

An example of an area where fibrinoid necrosis would occur?

Blood vessels (most common in liver)
Walls replaced by fibrin

17

Principle causes of acute inflammation include...

Bacterial and viral infections
Hypersensitivity
Trauma
Chemicals and irritants

18

The 3 phases of acute inflammation are:

Vascular - vasodilation and increased permeability
Exudative - fluid and cells escape from venules
Cellular - neurophils etc accumulate

19

What happens in transendothelial migration?

Neutrophils insert part of their cytoplasm into endothelium when they come into contact with ICAM-1

20

What is the effect of histamine?
What is it released by?

Vasodilation, increases vascular permeability, bronchoconstriction
Mast cells, eosinophils, basophils

21

Chronic inflammation is associated with the presence of...

Lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells
Formation of granulation tissue -> fibrosis

22

Characteristic appearances of chronic inflammation include...

Ulcer formation
Abscess cavities/suppurative inflammation
Granulomatous inflammation
Fibrosis

23

A granuloma is defined as...

An aggregate of epitheloid histiocytes (macrophages etc)

24

Labile cells are cells that only multiply upon receiving a stimulus. True/False?

False
Multiply continually - stable cells only multiply after stimulus

25

First intention healing is when there is an ulcerated surface. True/False?

False
Surgical scar is left - minimal granulation tissue and fibrosis

26

Metabolic disorders are of two types - ?

Inherited or acquired

27

Inherited metabolic disorders are usually autosomal dominant. True/False?

False
Autosomal recessive!

28

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is insulin dependent. True/False?

True

29

Type 1 Diabetes has no autoimmune assoc. True/False?

False
Type 2 has no autoimmune assoc.

30

Hyperplasia is defined as...

Enlargement due to increase in cell number

31

Hypertrophy is defined as...

Enlargement due to increase in cell size (no increase in cell number)

32

Atrophy is defined as...

Reduction in size due to decrease in cell size and number

33

Hypoplasia is defined as...

Reduced size of an organ that never fully developed to normal size
(failure of organ development)

34

Which out of hyperplasia, hypoplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy are potentially reversible?

Hyperplasia, hypertrophy and atrophy

35

Metaplasia is defined as...

Altered differentiation, where a mature cell type transforms into another cell type

36

In Barrett's oesophagus, ____ epithelium is replaced by ____ epithelium

Squamous, glandular

37

Stable cells divide upon stimulation. Examples include...

Hepatocytes
Fibroblasts

38

Permanent cells are not able to divide further. Examples include...

Neurones
Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle

39

Senescence is defined as...

Deterioration of function of cells

40

Some characteristics of benign neoplasms

Resemble normal
No invasion
Well differentiated
Normal mitotic figures
DO NOT METASTASISE

41

Some characteristics of maligant neoplasms

Invasive
Varied differentiation
Abnormal mitotic figures
Necrosis is common

42

Carcinomas are derived from mesenchymal cells/tissues. True/False?

False
Derived from epithelial tissue

43

Sarcomas are derived from which type of tissue?

Mesenchymal tissue

44

Squamous papillomas and adenomas are examples of which neoplasms?

Benign

45

Neoplastic cells are monoclonal. What does this mean?

All cells in the lesion are derived from a single common ancestor

46

What is dysplasia?

A pre-malignant process that involves altered differentiation

47

What is angiogenesis?

Formation of new blood vessels

48

What happens when angiogenesis becomes pathological?

Control of formation is lost - vessels formed are abnormal

49

What are the modulators of angiogenesis? What is the inhibitor?

Hypoxia, VEGF, TNFa
Thrombospondin-1 is the inhibitor

50

Sarcomas metastasise by which route?

Haematogenous

51

How can radiation cause cancer?

Causes oxidative stress, producing free radicals which damage DNA and other cells

52

Name some examples of classical oncogenes (stimulate cell division)

PDGF
ras
src

53

Name some examples of tumour suppressor genes

p53
BRCA-1

54

A daughter with mother with breast cancer at aged 70 is an example of a medium risk patient. True/False?

False
Low risk

55

An individual with a BRCA1 mutation is an example of a high risk patient. True/False?

True

56

Well differentiated tumours tend to have a better prognosis. True/False?

True

57

Duke's Stage A means...

Cancer is confined to wall

58

Duke's Stage B means...

Cancer penetrates wall

59

Duke's Stage C means...

Lymph node metastasis

60

Duke's Stage D means...

Metastatic disease

61

T1 staging means...

Invasion of submucosa

62

T2 staging means...

Invasion of muscularis propria

63

T3 staging means...

Invasion of tissues

64

T4 staging means...

Invasion of nearby organs

65

N0 staging means...

No lymph node metastasis

66

N1 staging means...

1-3 lymph nodes affected

67

N2 staging means...

4+ lymph nodes affected