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1
Q

Mezzanine areas will be found in some taxpayers. Their location, area and use will differ. Some are found in the rear of the store or building, some along one side from front to rear or along part of one side, and a few have been erected in the center of the premises. Which is incorrect regarding mezzanines?
A: Since these areas have probably been added to the premises after the original construction date, the load bearing components are solid and substantial.

B: The height of the ceilings in the mezzanine and the area below will be below average.

C: Access to this area may be via small wooden stairs or just a ladder. Very seldom will there be another means of access.

D: In the majority of the mezzanines this area will not be enclosed and there will be a railing at the edge.

A

A
Explanation:
The load bearing components can be of light construction.
Taxpayers 2.4

2
Q

The officer shall ensure that all members of the company are fully utilized when the apparatus is backing up and shall deploy members as guides to assist the chauffeur in backing up the apparatus. Of the following choices, which is incorrect when the apparatus is operating in reverse gear?
A: When an officer is present, all operations shall be under his/her command. The officer should take a position along the right side (officer’s side) of the apparatus near the cab.

B: The windows on both the chauffeur and officer’s side of the front cab shall be lowered.

C: Members of the unit should be assigned to positions flanking the rear of the apparatus on each side, and directed to walk alongside the apparatus as it moves in reverse gear as guides for the officer and the chauffeur and to prevent apparatus from hitting vehicles or pedestrians.

D:When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall slow down as necessary for a safe operation before backing into the intersection.

A

D
Explanation:
***Choice C is in conflict with the new TL bulletin sec 2.9 last bullet point… Never walk alongside an apparatus moving in reverse.
When the apparatus is approaching an intersection in reverse, the apparatus shall be brought to a FULL STOP before backing into the intersection. The apparatus shall not be backed into the intersection until the officer in command of the vehicle gives the order to do so.
A Note: In this position, the officer can look to the rear of the apparatus and also be in a position to give immediate and required orders to the chauffeur.
C Note: Members shall avoid placing themselves in a position between the apparatus and any rear obstruction.
SB 2 3.4

3
Q

Which of the following Building Inspection (BI) matters did you handle correctly?
A: With the sprinkler system operational during a CDA inspection, you ensured that all exposed piping of this system is painted green

B: Upon a verbal notification of an absent/defective smoke detector in a residential building, you forwarded an A-8B to Fire prevention

C: When serving a 10-35 Summons upon the owner of a private dwelling when no one is home, you instructed one of your members to place it in the mailbox to protect it from the weather

D: When issuing a criminal court summons, and the defendant refuses to take the summons, you just dropped the summons at their feet and walked away. This is considered properly served

A

D
Explanation:
AUC 5
A- All exposed standpipes and sprinkler piping must be painted red. The exception to this is branch piping…ch 2 add 2 p-3
B- Refer complainant to Department of Housing Preservation and Development by dialing 311….Ch 2 add 5 sec 8
C- NEVER place the FDNY Summons inside a mailbox. The member may post the FDNY Summons outside the home either between the main entrance door and a storm door, on the outside of the main door or within the vicinity of the mailbox…ch 3 add 1 p-5
D- Ch 3 add 3 sec 9.1.3
AUC 5 is new as of 12/4/2019… AUC 5 is considered NON-REFERENCE.

4
Q

To facilitate stretching hose, a horseshoe arrangement can be made on the hosebed. Which choice is correctly written for a horseshoe?
A: Only 1 3⁄4” hose can be arranged in a horseshoe.

B: Each horseshoe should be comprised of at least one 50’ length of hose and should be roughly 4 feet long.

C: A hosebed shall only have one horseshoe.

D: Horseshoes can be stacked on top of each other on the hosebed, with the lead length beneath.

A

B
Explanation:
A. 1 3⁄4” and 2 1/2”
C. A hosebed can have multiple horseshoes.
D. Horseshoes can be stacked on top of each other on the hosebed, with the lead length on top.
Eng Ops Ch 3 add 3 sec 3.3.1 D
Eng Ops Ch 2 sec 8.7

5
Q

Company Officers shall, when notified of structural or occupancy hazards dangerous to life or property, ________________ to determine conditions, transmit such information to Deputy and Battalion Chiefs on duty, and when necessary, forward a report to the Bureau of Fire Prevention via their chain of command.
A: cause an inspection within 48 hours

B: cause an inspection within 24 hours

C: cause an immediate inspection

D: cause an inspection before the end of the tour

A

C
Explanation:
Regulations Ch 12: 12.1.7

6
Q

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the newly issued Motorola APX8000XE Handie-Talkie (HT) radios?
A: When the PTT button is depressed, member should pause ½ second, allowing the HT ID to be transmitted.

B: Depressing the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) for approximately 1 second will activate the emergency alert.

C: The high visibility LED light mounted in the front of the remote speaker microphone can be used as a flashlight by depressing the light for 2 seconds. To turn off the light, depress the light for 2 seconds.

D: Pressing and holding the Home button for 1 second returns the radio to the Tactical Zone A, HT channel 1.

A

D
Explanation:
Home Button: Pressing and holding the Home button for long press (2 seconds) returns the radio to the Tactical Zone A, HT channel 1. (Note: No matter what channel the channel selector is on, you return to Channel 1). If you wish to use a different channel, use channel selector knob.
Comm 11 2.2.3 D, 2.5 C, F 3.5

7
Q

Engine 99 is dispatched to an EMS response for a reported man down at the intersection of East Street & West Avenue. Upon arrival, there is no obvious patient. Which choice below is CORRECT as the next action taken by the company?
A: Verify the response information with the dispatcher

B: Conduct a complete search of the area for the patient

C: Review the response printout for additional information as to the incident location

D: Attempt to contact neighbors, building superintendents, and/or security personnel

A

B
Explanation:
CFRD CHAPTER 2
B IS CORRECT – 4.7 – Conduct a complete search of the area. Followed by - Review the response printout for additional information, Verify the information with the dispatcher, attempt to contact neighbors, building superintendent and security personnel. 4.7.1-4.7.3

8
Q

The FDNY has the capability to place fire personnel on the roof of high-rise buildings, otherwise inaccessible due to fire conditions for the purpose of ventilation and search. A High Rise Roof Chief (HRRC) and designated High Rise Roof Team (HRRT) will be used to staff these positions. When dispatched, the HRRT will place all of the following tools into the High Rise Roof Kit except?
A: 6 SCBA with 1-hour cylinder

B: 1 Bolt Cutter

C: 2 Halligans/2 Axes

D: 2 6’ Halligan Hooks

E: 2 Search Ropes

A

D
Explanation:
1 Rabbit Tool….NO HOOKS
These bagged tools shall be the only tools brought into the helicopter. Tools shall be stowed in the helicopter as directed by the NYPD Helicopter Crew Chief
AUC 269 add 1 sec 3.3

9
Q

During an extensive search at a fire in an industrial plant, your OV FF transmits to you that he entered a room labeled on the door with a large diamond of blue, red, white and yellow colors. He stated there was a “3” in the red section. You would be correct to tell him?
A: The flash point in this area will be between 73 and 99 degrees F.

B: Shock and heat may cause detonation of this area.

C: The flash point in this area will be between 101 and 200 degrees F.

D: This area presents an extreme health danger.

A

C
Explanation:
Flammability/Red Section:
4 Flash Point below 73 degrees F
3 Flash Point below 100 degrees F
2 Flash point above 100 and not exceeding 200 degrees F
1 Above 200 degrees F
0 Will not burn
ERP p39

10
Q

Portable ladders may be used for a variety of reasons other than climbing. Some of those uses include: **1. A portable ladder secured across a doorway in an area where operations are in progress will indicate that section or room of the building has already been searched. **2. Portable ladders placed on one beam, elevated to knee level on supports and properly secured, can act as a barrier to civilian pedestrian traffic near a hazardous condition or fire operation. **3. Short ladders may be placed over holes in floors of buildings to prevent members from falling through during operations. **4. Portable ladders may be used to support overhead doors and other instances where it is necessary to supply support. Which of the above mentioned uses are correct?
A: 1,2,3,4

B: 1,3,4

C: 2,3,4

D: 3,4

A

D
Explanation:
1. …will indicate THAT THE ENTRANCE TO THAT SECTION OR ROOM OF THE BUILDING IS RESTRICTED.
2. Portable ladders placed on one beam and elevated to WAIST LEVEL…

Portable Ladders 9.2.2

11
Q

While operating at an EMS run, the Engine Officer discovers conditions that could precipitate a collapse. After requesting the Battalion to the scene, the officer considered the guidelines under which the FDNY would shore a building. Which choice below is INCORRECT about shoring?
A: Shoring can be installed to permit a building to remain safe to occupy.

B: In buildings where there is no civilian life hazard, shoring will only be installed if it can be safely installed at minimal risk to members and where there is a substantial property risk that can be safeguarded by the shoring.

C: A vacant/unoccupied building will not be shored if there is any risk to members installing the shoring or the use of shoring is unlikely to improve the overall outcome.

D: If a building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be shored except to facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of occupants.

A

C
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
C is incorrect – Vacant/unoccupied buildings will not be shored when there is SUBSTANTIAL RISK to members installing the shoring or the use of shoring is unlikely to SUBSTANTIALLY improve the overall outcome.11.5 pg 30
A,B,D are correct 11.5

12
Q

Which of the following general safety precautions regarding aerial ladder operations is incorrect?
A: Operate the ladder controls with deliberate motions and smooth application of power. Perform one function at a time and in the proper operating sequence. Don’t try to raise, rotate, and extend the ladder simultaneously.

B: Do not EXTEND or RETRACT the ladder while members are on it unless necessary for rescue.

C: Avoid moving the ladder while members are on it, except to remove them from serious exposure or for an extreme rescue effort.

D: Use the Personal Harness when operating from the aerial ladder.

A

B
Explanation:
B. Do not EXTEND or RETRACT the ladder while members are on it. ** NO EXCEPTIONS**

NOTE “A” CHOICE CROSS REF TOWER LADDER CH 1 SECTION 1.3:
ALL THREE BOOM FUNCTIONS (RAISE/LOWER, ROTATE LEFT/RIGHT, EXTEND/RETRACT) CAN BE PERFORMED SIMULTANEOUSLY)

KNOW THIS DIFFERENCE BETWEEN AL AND TL

Ladders 8.8; 8.9; 8.10; 8.11

13
Q

When transmitting a MAYDAY for an unconscious member, the member transmitting the MAYDAY should provide the IC with each of the following except?
A: Location

B: Unit and identity of the injured/unconscious member

C: SCBA status of the injured/unconscious member

D: Resources needed

A

C
Explanation:
Nature and extent of the injuries, if known
Comm 9.4.1 C3A

14
Q

Choose the form the contains the most correct information.
A: The A-8 Fire Department Referral Report shall be used for non-serious conditions that require a follow up by the Department of Buildings

B: The DOB High Priority Referral Report shall be used when the conditions require immediate action by DOB

C: Units receiving a complaint for a local movie theater must be investigated promptly, but must be investigated within 24 hours after receipt. Units receiving such complaints must make a diligent attempt to complete the inspection and each attempt should be recorded on the A-17

D: The officer who receives a complaint must be investigated promptly, but must be investigated within 24 hours after receipt. Units receiving such complaints must make a diligent attempt to complete the inspection and each attempt should be recorded on the A-17

A

D
Explanation:
AUC 5
A- The A-8 Fire Department Referral Report shall be used for non-serious conditions that require a follow up by the Bureau of Fire Prevention Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU) or the Bureau of Operation’s Public Transportation Safety Unit (PTSU)…..ch 3 add 4 sec 1.1.1
B- This report is NOT to be used in situations requiring immediate action….ch 3 add 5 sec 1.1.1……DOB High Priority Report shall be considered when the severity of conditions is not extremely hazardous OR immediate in nature and access issues are not present…ch 3 add 5 sec 2.1
C- Complaints related to places of public assembly such as theaters, sports arenas, convention halls, dance halls, cabarets, or similar occupancies will be immediately telephoned to the administrative Battalion Chief. The Battalion Chief will investigate with the administrative unit and inform the DC of actions taken ch 3 add 6 sec 1.3
D- Ch 3 add 6 sec 2.2
AUC 5 is new as of 12/4/2019…This is NON-REFERENCE

15
Q

Engine Company 99 started the tour with two trained firefighters in addition to a trained officer. A tough fire came in and one of the CFR firefighters went sick. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the actions the officer took upon return to quarters?
A: The officer advised the remaining members the company is out of service for CFR responses. They may still receive calls directly from the public for assistance.

B: The officer notified the Battalion and Division of their updated CFR status.

C: The officer recorded their updated CFR status in the company journal and notified the dispatcher.

D: The company maintained full CFR status, so no action had to be taken.

A

D
Explanation:
CFRD – CHAPTER 2
D is Correct – The company is in service for CFR runs with a trained officer and one trained firefighter. 1.8 note

16
Q

Overhauling at a fire in an old law tenement will expedite final extinguishment and minimize damage to the structure and its contents. Which statement below concerning overhauling is incorrect?
A: The term overhauling shall include any opening up of walls, ceilings, partitions, voids, etc. while checking for extension or to extinguish fire during the pre-control as well as during the post control phase of operations.

B: When performing overhaul operations, all members must wear their Department issued PPE including bunker pants, bunker boots, helmet, protective hood and gloves.

C: When performing overhaul operations in an IDLH environment, the SCBA and bunker coat may only be dispensed with when authorized by the IC.

D: Pre-control overhauling begins as soon as possible after the fire has been knocked down. D. Post-control overhauling is the continued operation that takes place after the fire is under control to ensure that there is complete fire extinguishment.

A

C
Explanation:
C. When performing overhaul operations in an IDLH environment, members must USE THEIR SCBA AND WEAR their Department issued PPE including BUNKER COAT, bunker pants, bunker boots, helmet, protective hood and gloves. NO EXCEPTIONS

CROSS REF 8.4 “When performing overhaul operations, all members must wear their Department issued PPE including bunker coat, bunker pants, bunker boots, helmets, protective hoods and gloves.” (IDLH NOT MENTIONED HERE)

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN OVERHAULING IN IDLH AND NON-IDLH IS THAT SCBA IS REQUIRED TO BE USED IN IDLH.
ALSO, BE CAREFUL WITH THE WORDS “USED” VS “WORN”:
USED=FACEPIECE DONNED
WORN=SCBA ON WITHOUT FACEPIECE DONNED

NEW TO LADDERS 3 AS OF MARCH 2019
Ladders 3: 7.0; 8.4

17
Q

During a Confined Space operation, a very stable, easily created high point anchor that may be available at the scene is a Tower Ladder and/or an Aerial Ladder. From the choices listed below, choose the most correct statement made about these two Ladders.
A: When using the TL, and the boom in position, all personnel must be removed from the turntable and the engine shut off to prev accidental movement except for the chauffeur. The chauffeur shall remain on the turntable.

B: The Aerial Ladder is preferred due to its reach

C: A TL or an Aerial may be used to lift a person if first evaluated by the on scene IC (Battalion Chief or higher)

D: Under no circumstances can a TL or an Aerial be used to lift a person

A

D
Explanation:
It states in sec 4.3 “The most important point to remember is that the TOWER OR AERIAL LADDER SHALL NEVER BE USED TO LIFT A PERSON”
A- ALL Personnel….it never gives an exception
B- The TL is preferred due to its greater weight-supporting capacity, at least 1000 lbs, compared to only 250 lbs for an Aerial Ladder
C- TL or Aerial Ladder shall never be used to lift a person
Emergency Procedures Confined Space Operations sec 4.3

18
Q

During an emergency roll call, officers shall maintain radio discipline. However, there are exceptions and an officer may transmit in each of the following cases during the emergency roll call except?
A: When called by the RCO

B: To transmit a Mayday/Urgent of their own

C: The officer has any information pertaining to the Mayday/Urgent

D: The officer has critical information regarding the on-going operation

A

C
Explanation:
The officer has CRITICAL information affecting the Mayday/Urgent
Comm 9 Add 2 5.1

19
Q

1620 Keys are widely used for all sorts of fire department operations. NYC Transit has adopted the use to support our operations. Which choice below is INCORRECT regarding 1620 key usage in NYC Transit?
A: Emergency Evacuation Device locks are accessible via 1620 key.

B: Escalator and Elevator Machinery rooms are accessible via 1620 key

C: High Exit Entry Turnstiles (HEET) are accessible via 1620 key.

D: Sound Powered Phone Outlets are accessible via 1620 key.

A

A
Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUMS
A IS INCORRECT – Metal mounting brackets are provided at each location and are secured with a corrosion resistant padlock. Keys for EED’s can be obtained at every token booth. 3.4 & 4.1
B – Addendum 21
C – Addendum 3 - 4.2
D – Addendum 10 – 2.3

20
Q

Understanding the construction features of private dwellings built of lightweight materials is important to safely operating at fires in these types of buildings. Which description below is correct?
A: Attached or semi-attached private dwellings are normally separated by a fire wall that may extend through the attic/cockloft.

B: During renovations, it is not permissible to combine ordinary construction and lightweight construction within the same structure.

C: In attached structures, double 5/8”-1” plasterboard is used on the partition walls between structures. This will always prevent fire extension between structures.

D: On exterior walls, the heavier type of exterior finishing products (stone or brick veneer) may be anchored to the structure with metal straps or wire mesh. These walls will always break apart before they fail when exposed to fire and high heat.

A

A
Explanation:
B. A combination of both lightweight and ordinary construction MAY BE USED in the same structure (i.e. renovated private dwellings).

C. In attached structures, double 5/8”- 1” plasterboard is used on the partition walls between structures. When these fire-resistant barriers are compromised by shoddy workmanship or renovations, FIRE MAY EXTEND INTO THE STRUCTURE WHERE THESE LIGHTWEIGHT MATERIALS ARE PRESENT.

D. The heavier type of exterior finishing products (stone or brick veneer) may be anchored to the structure with metal straps or wire mesh. These walls MAY POTENTIALLY FAIL AS ONE COMPLETE UNIT WHEN EXPOSED TO FIRE AND HIGH HEAT.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 2.1.1; 2.1.3; 2.2.1; 2.2.2

21
Q

When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, DO NOT TOUCH ANYTHING, retrace their steps and back out of the area. Members shall not attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving, but rather evacuate surrounding occupancies as needed and make all of the following notifications except?
A: Battalion Chief and Deputy Chief.

B: Request Haz Mat to respond.

C: NYPD (including the Bomb Squad when necessary).

D: Counterterrorism Task Force.

A

D
Explanation:
BFI (The Fire Marshals)
ERP Add 3 8.7.5

22
Q

As the first arriving officer to a Brush Fire, the only correct tactic you considered can be found in which choice?
A: Initial attack operations should concentrate on hooking up to a hydrant to establish a positive water source

B: Consider wetting down unburned areas ahead of the fire

C: Always attack the brush fire from the front

D: Attack the brush fire from the rear and attempt to narrow its spread eventually heading it off

A

B
Explanation:
AUC 151 Brush Fire Operations
A- Avoid hooking up to hydrants, except to protect exposures….5.4.2
B- 5.4.4
C- In general, avoid attacking from or operating in front of the fire. If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces……5.4.6
D- Attack the brush fire from the FLANKS and attempt to narrow its spread eventually heading it off

23
Q

Ladder 99 responded to reports of an incapacitated person on the 5th floor of a 6 story MD and was tasked with using the tower ladder to remove the patient via tower ladder bucket. Which action taken below is CORRECT according to TL operations?
A: The LCC positioned the turntable 25’ from the building to allow the bucket to reach the street level and ensure an efficient transfer to EMS.

B: Members operating in the bucket lashed the stokes basket to the top railing of the Tower Ladder bucket.

C: The stokes was secured in the horizontal position which is the preferred position as it is the easiest and safest of the three positioning options.

D: To ensure a smooth operation, the basket firefighter performed the lowering operation.

A

A
Explanation:
TOWER LADDERS – CHAPTER 3
A IS CORRECT - 3.3 ch 3 pg 4
B – Incorrect – Must be lashed to a substantial part of the bucket. Not the doors or railings
C – Incorrect – The preferred position is diagonal. 3.3 CH 3 PG 4
D – Incorrect – The pedestal firefighter should perform the lowering operation if conditions permit. 3.3 ch 3 pg 4.

24
Q

You’re the ladder company officer conducting an investigation at a reported gas leak in apartment 3A on the 3rd floor of a 5-story multiple dwelling. Which of the following comments concerning this operation is incorrect?
A: You’re first priority is to ensure there is not a major gas emergency.

B: After receiving natural gas readings on your Altair meter upon entering the building, you proceeded directly to the callers apartment to evaluate conditions.

C: You directed your outside team to the natural gas utility meter location.

D: When detector and meter readings are present, it is not acceptable to leave the scene of an “odor of gas” response after the odor has dissipated without mitigation or coordination with utility company representatives.

A

B
Explanation:
B. If any natural gas levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Meter upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, the inside team should PROCEED DIRECTLY TO THE BASEMENT/CELLAR TO EVALUATE CONDITIONS.

NOTE D: BOTH DETECTOR AND METER READINGS ARE NECESSARY FOR THIS PROVISION TO APPLY. DON’T LET THEM BLUFF YOU WITH JUST A HIT ON THE DETECTOR

Natural Gas 6.5 Pages 18-20

25
Q

The most correct description/duties of the FireIce Unit can be found in which choice?
A: The FireIce units will be designated by the letter prefix “I” on the response ticket when assigned as a FireIce unit

B: The FireIce system is supplied by a 2 1/2” handline

C: FireIce is not effective on class B fires

D: The member operating the nozzle should commence operations a safe standoff distance of 25’. After establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 15’ from the manhole opening

A

C
Explanation:
AUC 180 add 2
A- Suffix ex: E326I….sec 4.1
B- 1 3/4”…sec 6.1
C- sec 7.3…Therefore, it is NOT intended for use at any type of transformer fire
D- The member operating the nozzle should commence operations a safe standoff distance of 50’. After establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 25’ from the manhole opening….sec 8.4….also: direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately one foot in front of the manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole opening….sec 8.5
Remember: FireIce is a dry-chemical extinguishing agent that is intended for use at manhole fires (class C fires) involving electrical cables. NOT TRANSFORMERS….sec 1.1, 2.1, 7.3

26
Q

You respond to the scene of a structural fire and arrive as a single, fully staffed Ladder Company, with no other unit on scene. Who should make up your safety team?
A: The officer and one member.

B: The Roof FF and OV FF.

C: The LCC and OV FF.

D: The LCC and Roof FF.

A

C
Explanation:
MMID 1 5

27
Q

While out conducting their semi-annual subway inspections, Ladder 199 members discovered a dry standpipe riser and alerted the officer. Which action taken by the officer was CORRECT following this discovery?
A: The officer made an immediate notification to PTSU via Email.

B: The officer made an immediate notification to PTSU via telephone.

C: The officer forwarded an A-8 Referral to the Public Transportation Safety Unit, Bureau of Operations.

D: The officer made no notification because Subway Standpipes are dry systems.

A

D
Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 10
D is Correct – Please know the difference between subway standpipes and Under River Standpipes. Subway standpipes are dry systems. Under River Systems are wet. AUC 207 Addendum 10 5.1/5.4
A – Email is not available as an option. Fax is for an immediate notification 5.4
B & C are correct as written for an out of service system 5.1

28
Q

The FDNY currently uses several types of ropes to aid firefighters during a variety of emergencies such as the Life Saving Rope (LSR). Search Rope, Person Safety System (PSS), and the Utility Rope. The most correct description in regards to these ropes can be found in which choice?
A: The LSR is 5/8” in diameter. It is made of a continuous filament of Nylon with a length of 150’, weight of 14 1/2 pounds, and a working load of 600 lbs. Over a period of time ropes have shrunk 8 to 10 feet

B: The Search Rope is made of either 5/16th diameter white nylon or a 7.5 mm diameter Kernantle design and is 200 feet long. A series of knots are used to identify direction to and distance from the tie off point with the first direction knot 18” before the first 25 foot distance knot

C: The PSS is 7.5 mm in diameter, 50’ in length of kermantle rope with a figure “8” knot tied at the end of the rope, and has a working load of 300 lbs

D: The Utility Rope is 9/16” in diameter, 50’ in length, and all Engines and Ladders shall carry a minimum of 1 length on their apparatus. The Utility Rope shall be used at fires and emergencies to restrain portable multiversal nozzles, lash ladders, use as guide lines, and to secure equipment on apparatus etc..

A

C
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Rope
A- 9/16”…Rope 1 sec 1.1 and 1.6
B- The 25 foot distance knot will NOT have a direction knot …Rope 6 sec 2 and 3.5.note
C- Rope 4 sec 1
D- All Engine Companies shall carry a minimum of 2 lengths. All Ladder Companies shall carry a minimum of 3 lengths….Rope 7 secs 1, 2, and 3

29
Q

You arrive at Box 7182 for a report of “popping sounds” from an outdoor Li-ion-ESS Container. After transmitting a 10-80 code 1, Haz Mat units arrive and determine there is no rise in temperature of the battery or module. Which action below would be considered correct?
A: Shut down the ESS.

B: The initial Danger Zone is no longer required to be enforced and maintained.

C: Do not charge the FDC water extinguishing system.

D: Do not exhaust the container.

A

C
Explanation:
In this case (NO rise in temperature of the battery or module):
DO NOT charge the FDC water extinguishing system.
DO NOT shut down ESS.
Ensure the initial Danger Zone is enforced and maintained.
Exhaust the container/cabinet (exhaust override switch at the FDC). FYI…”Cabinets”may not have exhaust systems. If the FDC is located closer than 50 feet from the nearest container/cabinet then personnel shall only enter this area under the order of the IC.
Ask for SME for guidance via telephone.
HM 19 p5

30
Q

A water safety unit must follow certain procedures when operating at the scene of an ice rescue. Which procedure below is incorrect?
A: Generally there are two methods Water Safety Units have available to them for an ice rescue: the reach method and the throw method.

B: Rescuer shall consider the use of FDNY ladders. NYC parks department ladders placed near bodies of water are unreliable and shall not be used.

C: The reach method should not be abandoned even after the Water Rescue Unit is on scene and a rescuer is making their way out to the victim.

D: The throw method does not necessarily follow the reach method, in fact, they should be employed simultaneously when conditions allow or when the victim is beyond reach.

A

B
Explanation:
B. Rescuers shall consider the use of the ladders (FDNY LADDERS OR LADDERS WHICH HAVE BEEN PLACED BY NYC PARKS DEPARTMENT AROUND BODIES OF WATER FOR THIS PURPOSE)

KNOW THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN WATER SAFETY UNITS AND WATER RESCUE UNITS

Water Rescue 3: 3.3.2; 3.3.3; 3.3.4

31
Q

Which statement below is INCORRECT regarding the stages of the collapse plan?
A: Problems with utilities are dealt with during the Reconnaissance Phase.

B: If conditions and personnel permit, accounting for and the removal of surface victims can happen simultaneously with the Reconnaissance Phase.

C: If sufficient personnel are available, void searches can be conducted simultaneously with the removal of surface victims.

D: If conditions and personnel permit, select debris removal and tunneling can be conducted simultaneously with void searches.

A

D
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES - COLLAPSE
D is INCORRECT – Select debris removal begins when all voids have been searched and people remain unaccounted for. 11.6 pg. 30
A – Correct – 11.2 pg 25
B – Correct – 11.3 pg 25
C – Correct – 11.4 pg 27 bottom

32
Q

Positioning the Tower Ladder may be challenging on streets that are narrow and lined with parked cars. When positioning and setting up the Tower Ladder for operations which comment below is incorrect?
A: A guide firefighter, typically the outside vent firefighter, should assist the chauffer in positioning the apparatus so that the outriggers will clear parked cars and other obstructions.

B: The guide firefighter is to remain in position until the outrigger is fully lowered on the operator’s blind side.

C: When operating any Tower Ladder, a 6’ hook may be utilized as a gauge to determine of the outriggers will clear all obstructions.

D: The preferred placement of the manual pins for the jacks shall be the highest slot available once extended.

A

C
Explanation:
C. When operating WITH A 75’ Tower Ladder , a 6’ hook may be utilized as a gauge to determine of the outriggers will clear all obstructions.

THIS METHOD MAY NOT BE USED WITH A 95’ TOWER LADDER AS THE CLEARENCE NEEDED FOR THE OUTRIGGER TO AN OBSTRUCTION IS 6’8”.

** NEW BULLETIN RELEASED 10/1/2019**
THIS IS NEW INFORMATION IN THE BULLETIN

Tower Ladder Ch 1 Pgs 3-4

33
Q

Of the following choices, which one correctly identifies the unit’s designation?
A: E023C - Communications Unit

B: E007N - Cockloft Nozzle

C: E229F - FireIce Unit

D: E040W - Water-Ice Rescue Unit

A

D
Explanation:
E023C - CFRD Engine. “S” = Communications Unit
E007N - High Rise Nozzle
E229I - FireIce Unit
Comm 2 p37

34
Q

Guidelines were written to aid the engine officer in making the decision between 1 3⁄4” and 2 1⁄2” hoselines. Which guideline is incorrectly written?
A: The 235 GPM flowrate provided by the 1 3⁄4” hoseline is sufficient to extinguish the majority of fires encountered.

B: When the 1 3⁄4” hoseline is supplied with 50 psi at the 15/16” tip, the nozzle reaction is 68 lbs. This is the force felt by the nozzle firefighter.

C: 1 3⁄4” hoseline is the primary attack line in the FDNY.

D: The increased speed and mobility of the 1 3⁄4” hoseline enables the nozzle firefighter to more effectively operate the hoseline and direct the water stream as needed.

A

A
Explanation:
Eng Ops Ch 4 sec 4.4, 4.5
The 180 GPM flowrate provided by the 1 3⁄4” hoseline is sufficient to extinguish the majority of fires encountered.
When supplied with a nozzle pressure of 40 psi, the 2 1⁄2” hoseline will provide a flowrate of 235 GPM and a nozzle reaction of 78 lbs. This is the force felt by the nozzle firefighter.

35
Q

Fires in places of worship are low frequency high consequence operations that are often difficult, fast spreading, and resource intensive. Which tactic described below is incorrect for a fire in a place of worship?
A: A 2 ½-inch hoseline must be stretched for any fire in a place of worship.

B: For a fire in the choir loft the first hoseline should be stretched through the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire.

C: For a first floor fire, whenever two hoselines are stretched and operating and the fire does not show immediate signs of extinguishment, the IC should prepare for an exterior attack.

D: When fire is found to involve the truss space, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.

A

A
Explanation:
A. When the fire is located in a large open area of a place of worship or the reach of the stream is required to reach higher elevations, the initial lines will generally be 2-1/2 inch.

For a cellar fire where operations will be in close quarters, mobility of operations are a prime consideration, therefore the interior hoselines stretched should generally be 1 3⁄4 inch.

NEW BULLETIN AS OF 8/15/19 Places of Worship Fires 6.1.2; 6.1.3; 6.3.1; 7.1.3

36
Q

Two members discussing Fire Department operations at structural fires where window bars are present identified which incorrect comment made?
A: The unit transmitting the 10-75 for a fire in a building with window bars should include a brief description of the type of building involved and state the presence of window bars.

B: An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called and the special called Ladder Company must be a Tower Ladder. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company.

C: If possible, room at the front of the fire building should be made available to position the Tower Ladder. The Tower Ladder basket, placed to an upper floor front or side window, presents the best platform to work from.

D: The unit assigned to remove the window bars should ensure at least one window on the fire floor and the floor above is cleared of bars, with a portable ladder, aerial ladder or tower ladder placed to the window. The location of windows that have been cleared should be communicated to all units.

A

B
Explanation:
An additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder Company shall be a Tower Ladder, IF one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment. If there are indications that people are trapped, ensure the response of a Rescue Company.
Note: The special called Ladder company can be directed to operate “as a unit” and remove window bars.
SB 84 4.1, 4.2, 4.6-4.8, 4.10

37
Q

A flanking strategy has just been ordered at an upper floor fire at a HRFPD because wind is impacting the fire. With the door to the fire apartment left open, the most correct procedure for you to take can be found in which choice?
A: Enter an adjoining apartment via a different stair because its closer from the designated attack stair. You immediately close the adjoining apartment door and stretch a hoseline from the apartment below via an exterior window using a utility rope and breach the wall as close to the exterior wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path. Initially the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the main stream tip of the nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room

B: Enter an adjoining apartment via the designated attack stair even though another stair is closer to the adjoining apartment. You immediately close the adjoining apartment door and stretch a hoseline from the apartment below via an exterior window using a utility rope and breach the wall as close to the exterior wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path. Initially the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the main stream tip of the nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room

C: Enter an adjoining apartment via a different stair because its closer from the designated attack stair. You immediately stretch hoseline via the public hallway into the adjoining apartment and breach the wall as close to the exterior wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path. Initially the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the main stream tip of the nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room

D: Enter an adjoining apartment via the designated attack stair even though another stair is closer to the adjoining apartment. You immediately close the adjoining apartment door and stretch a hoseline from the apartment below via an exterior window using a utility rope and breach the wall as close to the interior wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path. Initially the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the main stream tip of the nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the base of the fire of the fire room

A

A
Explanation:
This option is available based on the location of the fire apartment, the location of a stairway closer to the selected apartment and the interior hallway conditions.
Stretching via the public hallway into the adjoining apartment is for when the fire apartment door is CLOSED
Multiple Dwellings add 3 Wind Impacted Fires sec 4.2.4

38
Q

The intended use of the EZ Don harness can be incorrectly stated in which choice?
A: The EZ Don Harness does not replace the life saving rope’s bowline on a bight for removal purposes

B: The EZ Don Harness will fit most individuals and can be deployed and donned within seconds

C: The EZ Don Harness provides the utmost safety whether the removal involves a conscious and alert person or an injured or unconscious victim

D: The EZ Don Harness is designed for non-technical safe removal of a victim or firefighter from an area with limited access, a confined space such as a stuck elevator, above or below grade structures or from heights

A

A
Explanation:
The EZ Don Harness DOES replace the life saving rope’s bowline on a bight for removal purposes
Rope 9 sec 2
New as of 5/8/2019

39
Q

You’re the first ladder company officer operating at a major gas emergency in the cellar of a 6-story H-Type multiple dwelling. The leak has been found at the master meter. Which action taken below is incorrect?
A: If the leak can be controlled by a valve or, on low pressure service (or medium/high pressure service after the service regulator) by taping or plugging, then do so.

B: Only if levels can be kept to less than 10% LEL by venting may you continue to operate.

C: If at any time gas levels reach 80% of the LEL or higher, treat the affected area as a “potential blast zone.”

D: If it is suspected that natural gas has been leaking for a considerable amount of time and is likely trapped in a void space, treat the affected area as a “potential blast zone.”

A

B
Explanation:
B. IF THE LEAK IS FOUND, and levels can be kept to LESS THAN 80% LEL by venting, you may continue to operate. (THE LEAK HAD BEEN FOUND AS STATED IN QUESTION)

NOTE: WHEN THE LEAK IS NOT FOUND TREAT THE AFFECTED AREA AS A “POTENTIAL BLAST ZONE” IF LEVELS CANNOT BE LIMITED TO LESS THAN 10% LEL BY VENTING

KNOW THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN “LEAK FOUND” AND “LEAK NOT FOUND”

Natural Gas Page 32

40
Q

At a large, multi-agency incident, you are instructed to operate on a UTAC “Repeater Channel”. When transmitting on a repeater channel, you must press and hold the Push to Talk for how long, before beginning to speak to allow the repeater to activate and not cut off the beginning of the message?
A: 1/2 second

B: 1 second

C: 2 seconds

D: 3 seconds

A

C
Explanation:
Comm 14 Add 4 2.2

41
Q

Which unit/position operated correctly at a HRFPMD?
A: 2nd arriving Ladder Company ensured all elevators are recalled and searched and confirmed all evacuation doors are closed on the fire floor

B: 2nd arriving Roof FF takes a Halligan, Maul, and K.O. Curtain and proceeds to the apartment directly above the fire via the attack stair

C: For a fire on a lower floor or below grade, a hand stretch of 2 1/2” from the pumper is acceptable

D: Since the 5th assigned Engine is not equipped with the High-Rise nozzle, the dispatcher will designate the Engine Company carrying the High-Rise nozzle as the “High-Rise Nozzle Engine Company”

A

C
Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings
A- ENSURED all evacuation doors are closed on the fire floor…..sec 6.15.1……3rd arriving Ladder CONFIRMS….sec 6.16.2
B- Halligan, Maul, and LSR…sec 6.15.4……1st and 3rd Roof FF takes Hydra Ram and K.O. Curtain and proceeds to the apartment directly above the fire via the attack stairway…sec 6.14.4 and 6.16.4
C- Correct if there is no access to an available standpipe outlet or one that is not in the IDLH. A hand stretch from a pumper may also faciliate a smooth advance into the fire area on these lower floors…..sec 6.13
D- 5th assigned engine is responsible for placing the HRN into operation. If the 5th assigned engine is not equipped with a HRN, the officer shall contact the dispatcher for the identity of the unit carrying the HRN that has already been assigned to the 10-77…sec 6.11

42
Q

Upon arrival at a CFR response in a subway for difficulty breathing, you find multiple victims complaining of eye irritation and a distinct odor of grass. At this incident, you should suspect victims have been exposed to what type of agent?
A: Nerve

B: Blister

C: Blood

D: Choking

A

D
Explanation:
Nerve - Fruit odor
Blister - Garlic odor
Blood - Burn Almonds odor
ERP Add 2 2.4

43
Q

Engine 296 and Ladder 196 arrive at a rapidly growing fire in a junkyard and are confronted by an aggressive pit bull. Which action taken by the companies is INCORRECT according to established procedures?
A: Members avoided eye to eye contact which has a tendency to make the dog attack.

B: The companies directed a CO2 extinguisher stream into the dog’s face; then used short bursts from the extinguisher to back the dog into another area.

C: Once the handline was stretched for operation, a second 1 ¾ handline was stretched for continued protection.

D: PD ESU was requested for the use of their tranquilizer guns for control of the dog.

A

C
Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS FIRES 2 - PROTECTION AGAINST DOGS
C IS INCORRECT – In junkyards and other facilities of that nature, the safest approach is to use a water stream. If a fire condition exists, a charged 1 3⁄4” line can be used for protection while an uncharged line is being advanced. 4.10
A – REFERENCE 1 Letter B Regarding Pitbulls
B – 4.6
D – 4.11

44
Q

What is the recommended pump pressure for a fire in a high-rise office building on the 64th floor?
A: 250psi

B: 400psi

C: 450psi

D: 500psi

A

C
Explanation:
HROB 4.1.7

45
Q

You are the first arriving officer for a report of a fire on the 30th floor of a 67 sty 200 X 200 High-Rise Office building. You make contact with Fire Safety Director and he confirms there is a fire on the 30th floor. The Fire Safety Director tells you that the floors below are filling up with smoke due to the access stairs from the 30th floor down to the 27th floor. You transmit the 10-76 and try to determine the best elevator to use to gain access to the fire. The three elevators are as follows: Bank A services floors 1-28; Bank B services floors 28-50; Bank C services floors 50-67. The most correct bank of elevators you chose can be found in which choice?
A: Bank A, which you took to floor 28

B: Bank B, which you took to floor 29

C: Bank B, which you took to floor 28

D: Instead of these banks, you took the service/freight elevator to two floors below the fire floor with permission of the IC

A

A
Explanation:
Elevator operations during fire operations:
1- when fire is confirmed on the 7th floor or below units should avoid the use of elevators
2- Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor
3- When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor:
A- If Firemen Service is available, use a car with the Firemen Service feature
B- Select a floor at least 2 floors below the fire floor OR 2 floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest
In this scenario, Bank A does not serve the fire floor; therefore you do not have to go 2 floors below the lowest level of the access stair
Training Bulletins (Elevators) sec 6

46
Q

Natural vertical ventilation at a high rise office building fire is accomplished by opening the doors at the top and bottom of the stairway once the fire is extinguished. This will increase the stack effect and assist in the removal of smoke via the stairway. Natural vertical ventilation is influenced by the stack effect in each of the following ways except?
A: Its effect becomes noticeable in buildings over 60 feet, and increases as the building’s height increases.

B: Its effect can be either positive or negative. Positive stack effect is the upward movement of air in a vertical shaft and negative stack effect is the downward movement of air in a vertical shaft. Both positive and negative stack effect may be intensified by the speed and direction of the wind.

C: Positive stack effect decreases as the outside air temperature decreases in relation to the temperature inside the building. Negative stack effect may occur when the outside temperature is less than the temperature inside the building; its possibility is greatest when the outside air temperature is below 90º F.

D: To obtain the greatest benefit from the stack effect, the doors at the top and bottom of the stairway must be opened when a stairway is used for smoke removal. The street floor near this stairway must also be vented to the outer air.

A

C
Explanation:
Positive stack effect INCREASES as the outside air temperature decreases in relation to the temperature inside the building. Negative stack effect may occur when the outside temperature is GREATER than the temperature inside the building; its possibility is greatest when the outside air temperature is ABOVE 90º F.
HROB 6.3.8 D

47
Q

If the Tower Ladder bucket makes contact with a building, structure or other obstruction, a potentially dangerous condition may present itself. The likelihood of the bucket becoming wedged or stuck will dramatically increase and extreme caution must be exercised. When this occurs member shall take certain safety precautions. Which one is correct?
A: Verify all members are secured to a substantial part of the bucket using the life belt or personal harness. The installed safety belt shall not be used.

B: Notify the IC (transmitting a “MAYDAY” message after depressing the EAB) of the condition.

C: Remain low in bucket but do not crouch. All members must immediately sit to lower their center of gravity in anticipation of possible sudden, violent movements.

D: P.T.O should remain engaged and the apparatus shut down.

A

D
Explanation:
A. Verify all members are secured to a substantial part of the bucket using the INSTALLED SAFETY BELT, life belt or personal harness.

B. Notify the IC (transmitting a “URGENT” message after depressing the EAB) of the condition.

C. Remain low in the bucket. All members SHOULD immediately CROUCH, SIT, OR OTHERWISE REMAIN LOW in the bucket to lower their center of gravity in anticipation of possible sudden, violent movements.

** NEW BULLETIN RELEASED 10/1/2019**
Tower Ladders 3.6

48
Q

All members should be familiar with the proper method of stretching a hose line up a fire escape. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Members can use a six-foot hook to pass the hoseline up the exterior of the fire escape. As an alternative, a rope stretch may be executed.

B: Initially, the hose is stretched to an area near the fire escape drop ladder.

C: If the hoseline is to be stretched to the fire floor by way of the interior stairs from the floor below the fire, then the line will be brought in the window two floors below and stretched to the fire area via the stairs.

D: One hose strap on the fire escape railing on floor below the fire will effectively secure the hose; additional hose straps are not necessary.

A

C
Explanation:
If the hoseline is to be stretched to the fire floor by way of the interior stairs from the floor below the fire, then the line will be brought in the window ON THE FLOOR BELOW and stretched to the fire area via the stairs.
Eng Ops ch 7 sec 8

49
Q

Which tactic was carried out correctly for a fire in a Rowframe?
A: After several minutes of searching for a fire in a Brownstone type Rowframe the Ladder officer communicated to the IC that “we found the fire. Its located on the basement level in the rear”

B: At a top floor fire in a Brownstone type rowframe, the 2nd ladder company will operate on all floors below and relieve the 1st ladder company when necessary

C: For a top floor fire in a OLT type rowframe, the 2nd arriving OV FF will assist both Roof FFs to vent roof of fire building and necessary exposures

D: When ever the TL basket is used for roof access the saw and LSR will be brought to the roof

A

D
Explanation:
Rowframes
A- Same as Brownstones, the word BASEMENT shall not be used in fireground communications. Refer to basement as “first floor”….sec 5.1.2.A.note…..new as of 8/28/2019
B- Top floor fire Brownstone type, the 2nd ladder will split the company and examine exposures 2 and 4 for extension. The inside team should operate in the most severely threatened exposure….p-41
C- Top floor fire, 2nd OV FF will operate from fire escape for VEIS of the top floor with 1st OV FF or another available member……p-45
D- p-46

50
Q

Two firefighters assigned to a busy Brooklyn Ladder Company were conducting a drill on KO Curtain deployment. In which choice below is the described action correct?
A: The Deployment firefighter must have their facepiece in the standby position and full PPE donned when deploying the KO Curtain.

B: The KO Curtain shall never be deployed in the horizontal position. The KO Curtain is designed and shall be deployed only in the vertical position.

C: Open the Deployment Window by removing/breaking all glass, and remove any child guards or window gates.

D: Once the fire has been extinguished, it may be necessary to remove the KO Curtain to assist in ventilation of the fire apartment. The removal of the KO Curtain must be approved by the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area.

A

B
Explanation:
A: The Deployment firefighter must have their facepiece ON and full PPE donned when deploying the KO Curtain. This will protect the Deployment firefighter from unexpected auto-exposure which will subject them to fire, smoke and superheated gases.
C: Open the Deployment Window WITHOUT removing/breaking the glass, and remove any child guards or window gates. Do NOT remove the glass UNLESS absolutely necessary; this window will need to be closed if auto-exposure becomes a problem.
D: Once the fire has been extinguished, it may be necessary to remove the KO Curtain to assist in ventilation of the fire apartment. The removal of the KO Curtain must be approved by the INCIDENT COMMANDER. The request for removal of the KO Curtain will be made by the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire apartment, after first consulting with the Engine Company Officer in charge of the hoseline inside the apartment. The Ladder Company Officer shall use the Thermal Imaging Camera to confirm all fire has been extinguished. The Engine Officer shall insure that the nozzle team is aware of KO Curtain removal, and is prepared to extinguish any increase in fire conditions resulting from removing the KO Curtain.
Evol 34 5.2, 5.4, 5.5, 5.14

51
Q

First alarm units are operating at the scene of a stubborn cellar fire in a 2 1/2-story peaked roof private dwelling. Size-up indicates a serious fire in the cellar. The main entrance is in the front of the dwelling, and there is a secondary entrance on the exposure 4 side. It has been determined that the quickest access to the cellar is through the main entrance on the first floor. Which action below is correct at this operation?
A: The first engine advanced the first hoseline through the front door and down the interior cellar stairs.

B: Only a Chief Officer may consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown.

C: The first arriving ladder company inside team will assume responsibility for primary search of the first floor and floors above.

D: The second arriving ladder inside team will coordinate their advance with the second hoseline into the cellar via the main entrance.

A

C
Explanation:
A. The first engine advanced the first hoseline through the front door and MAINTAINS ITS POSITION ON THE FIRST FLOOR (IF SAFETY ALLOWS) UNTIL THE CELLAR FIRE IS CONTROLLED.

NOTE: A “serious fire condition” (AS STATED IN THE QUESTION) is one of the conditions that would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior stairs. The other two are: high heat conditions at the top of the stairs and questionable stability of the stairs.

B. THE IC (CHIEF OR COMPANY OFFICER) may consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown.

D. The second arriving ladder inside team will coordinate their advance with the second hoseline into the cellar via the SECONDARY entrance.

NOTE: SINCE THE FIRST LINE WAS PRECLUDED FROM ADVANCING DOWN THE INTERIOR STAIRS TO THE CELLAR DUE TO THE SERIOUS FIRE CONDITION THE “C” CHOICE IS CORRECT AS WRITTEN FOR THE FIRST LADDER.

Private Dwellings: Ch 3 Section 2.6, 2.7.2; Ch 4 Section 10.4.2

52
Q

When operating at a Brownstone fire, the most correct tactic can be found in which choice?
A: For a fire located in the cellar, the 1st arriving Engine officer radio to his Nozzle FF to stretch the line through the basement door (located under the exterior stoop) to the top of the cellar stairs so they could advance down the cellar stairs

B: Upon arrival, the 1st Engine officer transmitted a 2nd alarm for heavy fire in the cellar

C: When a building is fully involved upon arrival, the first engine drops two 1 3/4” handlines and position apparatus for the possible use of the multiversal nozzle or to supply a TL

D: For a top floor fire the 1st Roof FF proceeded to the roof with Halligan tool, and saw

A

C
Explanation:
Brownstones
A- The word basement shall NOT be used in fireground communications. Members referring to the first story of the building during fireground communications shall only use the terminology, First Floor…..sec 2.1.1….This was changed on 8/28/2019
B- 2nd alarm for heavy fire in the cellar AND basement…..sec 4.4…
Extra engine and ladder for two floors of fire…..sec 4.4
C- 1st line into the building. 2nd line to backup the 1st line. There is NO mention of a 2 1/2 for interior use….sec 3 and 3.4
D- Top floor fire, 1st Roof FF proceeds to roof with Halligan Tool, 6’ Halligan hook , LSR…..p-14….2nd Roof FF proceeds to roof with saw and 6’ Halligan hook….p- 21

53
Q

Which flagging column company journal entry is listed incorrectly?
A: RFD - Scheduled to Report for or be Relieved from Duty

B: EE - Entries Examined

C: SP - Special Entries

D: EI - Exchange of Information

A

A
Explanation:
RXD - Scheduled to Report for or be Relieved from Duty
CJ p8

54
Q

The following choices signal warning signs of a potential structural collapse during firefighting operations in a taxpayer structure. Which one is described incorrectly?
A: Heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 15 minutes or more, particularly in a small, compartmented area.

B: Walls leaking smoke or water.

C: Walls or columns out of plumb.

D: Inability to make successful headway against a heavy fire condition within 20 minutes into the operation at the fire.

A

A
Explanation:
Heavy body of fire which has been burning out of control for 20 MINUTES or more, particularly in a LARGE OPEN floor area.
Txpyr 4.2.5

55
Q

What is the most common type of peaked roof found in lightweight construction?
A: Laminated wood I-Beams

B: Metal C-joists

C: Composite Truss

D: Open-web lightweight wood truss

A

D
Explanation:
Private Dwellings Ch 6: 2.2.5 A

56
Q

Choose the tactic that was carried out correctly at a HRFPMD fire.
A: 1st arriving Ladder Company officer will select the attack stair and notify the 1st/2nd due Engine officers, and the IC

B: 2nd arriving Engine shall ensure the Siamese is supplied. Obtain the Post Radio from 1st arriving BC and bring it to the standpipe outlet where the first hoseline is being connected and establish a communications link on channel 2 between the fire sector and the IC if necessary

C: After all units are in position, and two elevators are available and serviceable, maintain one elevator on standby in the lobby and the other one floor below the fire

D: A service/freight elevator shall not be used until it has been evaluated and declared safe for use by the IC

A

B
Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings
A- The 1st arriving Engine officer will COMMUNICATE with the Ladder Company officer to select the attack stair. The attack stairway need not be the stairway with a standpipe outlet…sec 6.7.2
B- sec 6.8.2
C- One in the lobby, and one TWO floors below the fire…..sec 6.4.8
D- A service/freight elevator shall not be used until it has been evaluated and declared safe for use by the COMPANY OFFICER…..sec 6.4.7

57
Q

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the newest type of taxpayer construction?
A: It is much better than the traditional or older type from a fire protection viewpoint.

B: Many of the newer type taxpayers are built with large, uncompartmented cellars, which pose a major problem at cellar fires.

C: The partition walls are usually better constructed due to the use of the steel and aluminum stud system which employs gypsum blocks and sheathing as a bearing or nonbearing wall system.

D: The roof system will remain a major fire fighting factor because, for the most part, the roofs are constructed of “bar joists,” lightweight steel or flat wood trusses.

A

B
Explanation:
Many of the newer type taxpayers are built on a concrete slab foundation, which REMOVES a major problem of cellar and basement fires.
Txpyr 3.13

58
Q

In an OLT, the search for fire extension on the fire floor is started as soon as possible. Many fires do not initially ignite the structure. The contents of a building are ignited and burn first, then the flames spread to the structure. Which of the comments regarding fire extension in an OLT is incorrect?
A: The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements are often fire stopped between the ceiling of one floor and the underside of the floor above. This will prevent lateral extension across the building.

B: The search for fire extension is often done by sense of touch alone. All places where fire might have extended and display no immediate signs of burning such as discoloration, blistering, smoke, etc. should be examined by touch.

C: When checking for extension, there are six sides to examine in the fire area.

D: In Old Law Tenements, the floor beams are laid parallel to the front of the building thus forming horizontal channels for fire travel as far as both side walls (bearing walls) of the building.

A

A
Explanation:
A. The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements are NOT fire stopped between the ceiling of one floor and the underside of the floor above. This MAY PERMIT lateral extension across the building and could be first discovered by the unit working on the floor above the fire floor when they encounter extension and/or an unusually heavy smoke condition in the apartment which is not directly over the fire apartment.

Ladders 3: 7.1.2; 7.1.3; 7.1.6; 7.1.7

59
Q

In which choice below would you suspect an abnormal condition and transmit a 10-80 with the appropriate code for a “radiological emergency”?
A: A Rad meter reading 1 mR/hr one meter from a package with a White I label?

B: A Rad meter reading 45 mR/hr on the surface of a package with a Yellow II label?

C: A Rad meter reading 150 mR/hr on the surface of a package with a Yellow III label?

D: A Rad meter reading 50 mR/hr one meter from a five packages, each with a Yellow III label?

A

A
Explanation:
For a White I label, the maximum is 0.5 mR/hr on the surface of the package and NO READINGS one meter from the package.
B Note: This is correct as written; remember, it states for a Yellow II label - 50 mR/hr is the MAXIMUM reading on the surface of the package. 1 mR/hr max one meter away.
C Note: Yellow III - max 200 mR/hr on the surface and max 10 mR/hr one meter from the package.
D Note: The total TI of a vehicle’s shipment may not exceed 50 mR/hr. This can be a maximum of five Yellow III packages with a max of 10mR/hr one meter away (Transportation Index or TI) each.
ERP Add 4 2.5, 2.5.6

60
Q

Which of the following Building Inspection (BI) matters did you handle correctly?
A: Upon re-inspection of a V.O., you discovered 50 percent of the work has been completed, so you granted an extension, and noted such extension time on the back of the re-inspection copy

B: During an inspection of a CDA, you issued a FDNY Summons to a worker who was smoking

C: You issued a FDNY Summons for a locked exit to a NYC public school, because Criminal Court Summons are not to be issued to a city agency

D: Upon the issuing of a FDNY Summons, you made sure no more than seven Violation Categories (VCs) were cited on the FDNY Summons. Any more than seven then an additional FDNY Summons is needed

A

D
Explanation:
AUC 5
A- The officer may allow an extension if 75 percent of the required work has been completed…..ch 3 add 2 p-1
B- Immediate Criminal Summons; locked exit; smoking on a construction site; illegal storage of LPG; illegal use of kerosene space heaters…ch 3 add 1 p-1
C- A criminal court summons may only be issued against a City Agency in the following instances; To a custodian or principal of a public school for a locked exit; To a NYCHA manager or superintendent for a standpipe or sprinkler shut-down without prior Fire Department notification; When directed by the Bureau of Fire Prevention
D- ch 3 add 1 p-2
AUC 5 new as of 12/4/2019. This is considered NON-REFERENCE