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Flashcards in Exam One Study Questions Deck (247):
0

What constitutes the spine?

The 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae

1

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

The ant bear and three toed sloth

2

Which mammals have less than 7 cervical vertebrae?

The manatee and two toed sloth

3

What does the term "thoracic" refer to?

Brest plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

4

What does the term "lumbar" refer to?

The loin; the region between the rib and the hip

5

What does the term "coccyx" refer to?

A cuckoo birds' bill or cuckoo birds' beak

6

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?

Gender variation or sexual dimorphism

7

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age of developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

Ontogenetic variation

8

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity of locational variation is identified as which type of variation?

Geographic variation of population based variation

9

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on the variation between individuals is identified as which type of variation?

Idiosyncratic variation

10

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

About 70 centimeters or 28 inches

11

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

About 60 centimeters or 25 inches

12

What is the length difference between a typical male and a typical female spinal column?

About 3 inches

13

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

About 58 centimeters or 23 inches

5
11
7
5

14

What specifically is responsible for the shape and position of the human frame?

Comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc

15

What organ(s) are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

16

What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?

The vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions

17

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

Cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform

18

What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

Ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification

Age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring

Age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim

19

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

The basivertebral venous foramen

20

What is the semicircular region of the bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called?

The vertebral arch

21

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

Cervical - posterolateral

Thoracic - posterior, slight lateral

Lumbar - posterior

22

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

The ligamentum flavum

23

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

Para-articular process

24

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

Accessory bone

25

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-Ray?

Shingling

26

What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

Cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis

27

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral x-Ray?

The spinolaminar junction

28

All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

The costal element

29

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

30

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

31

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?

The superior articular process or superior articular apophysis

32

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

The inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

33

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

The vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, the posterior longitudinal ligament

34

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane.

35

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-Ray?

Imbrication

36

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

Cervical - slight angle inferiorly

Thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly

Lumbar - no inferior angle

37

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

The spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges.

38

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

Cervical - triangular; thoracic - oval; lumbar - triangular; sacral - triangular

39

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each

Dura mater - tough mother; arachnoid mater - spider mother; Pia mater; tender or delicate mother

40

Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

Subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

41

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

interstitial fluid

42

What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?

cerebrospinal fluid

43

What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paraveretbral region?

dorsospinal artery

44

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

45

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

46

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

the vertebral artery

47

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

anterior medullary feeder arteries

48

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

49

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

posterior medullary feeder arteries

50

WHat forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

51

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C 6?

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

52

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

53

What arterial vasa corona branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

pial perforating arteries

54

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

55

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

filum terminale internum

56

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

57

What is the generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargment?

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T 12 vertebra

58

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

typically S4, S5, and Co1

59

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

L1

60

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of he filum terminale?

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

61

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

62

The last arterial vasa carona creates what feature on angiogram?

cruciate anastomisis

63

what is the name given to the condensation of meniges below S2?

filum terminale externum

64

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

coccygeal medullary vestige

65

What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

tethered cord syndrome

66

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

67

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

glycosaminoglycans

68

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

collagen type 1

69

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

hydroxyapatite

70

What is Wolff's Law as it pertains to bone?

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

71

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

intramembranous ossification

72

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

from the second to third month in utero

73

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

endochondral ossification

74

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

from the second to fifth month in utero

75

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

chondrocranium

76

Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

the mandible, sphenoid, temporal & occipital bones

77

What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

the clavicle

78

What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?

the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)

79

What are examples of short bones?

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

80

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal

81

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

The bone develops within a tendon

82

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

patella and pisiform

83

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be iscribed as 'living'?

It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

84

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets

85

WHat are the types of osseous linear elevation?

the line, ridge and crest

86

WHat are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus

87

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

spine and process

88

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

89

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

the fovea and fossa

90

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

ostium or orifice and hiatus

91

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone?

92

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

93

What is the definition of an osseous meatus?

a blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone

94

what is the definition of an osseous fissure?

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

95

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

articular heads and articular condyles?

96

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

the cranium

97

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

28 bones

98

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

8 bones

99

HOw many bones form the facial skeleton?

14 bones

100

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

ribs 11 and 12

101

What are the classifications of rib 3-7 in the typical adult skeleton?

typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

102

What are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?

atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

103

What are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?

typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs

104

What are the classifications of rib 10 in the typical adult skeleton?

atypical rib, false rib, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral rib

105

What are the classifications of ribs 11 or 12 in the typical adult skeleton>?

atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs

106

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

Arthrology

107

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

Syndesmology

108

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

Fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

109

What are the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?

Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis

110

What were the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints based on Latin groupings?

Suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis

111

What are the characteristics of sutra vera/true sutures?

Sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembraneous ossification

112

What were the classifications of sutura vera/true sutures based on Latin groupings?

serrate, denticulate and limbous

113

WHat are the characteristics of sutura notha/false sutures?

Sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

114

What were the classifications of sutra notha/false sutures based on latin groupings?

Squamous and harmoina

115

What is the synonym now used to identify the synarthrosis joint type?

Fibrous joints

116

WHat is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?

Malocclusion

117

The fibrous connective tissue holding the seams of the skull together are called?

Sutural ligaments

118

What is the name given to the location at the top of the skull where intramembraneous ossification centers have not yet united?

Fontanelles

119

What is the name given to the remnant of the posterior fontanelle in the adult skull?

Lambda

120

What is the name given to the remnant of the anterior fontanelle in the adult skull?

Bregma

121

Which suture classification demonstrates interlocking and overlapping characteristics?

Limbous suture

122

Sutures which neither overlap nor interlock are classified as?

Harmonia

123

Which joint classification would involve a fissure condition or appearance?

Schindylesis

124

What are examples of temporary cartilage joints?

Metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint and chondrocranium

125

What are examples of permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

Costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

126

What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

Fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

127

What are the characteristics of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

Limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification.

128

Which example of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

Symphysis menti

129

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

Articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

131

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

Intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

132

What are the characteristics of type 1 articular receptors?

Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint "at rest"

133

What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?

They resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

134

What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors ?

resemble Golgi tendon organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

135

Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels.

136

Type IV b articular receptors would be present in what locations?

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

137

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

Synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands & synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

138

What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?

Aid in spreading synovial fluid

139

What is the location of a subcutaneous synovial bursa?

Bursa between integument and bone

140

What is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa?

Bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage

141

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

are phagocytic

142

What are the specific function of type B synovial cells?

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

143

WHat is the common function of type A and type B synovial cells?

Formation and absorption of synovial fluid

144

What is the architecture of the largest proteoglycans?

a backbone of hyaluronic acid to which core proteins are bound, chondroitin sulfates and keratin sulfates are bound to the core protein

145

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

form a network for water retention

146

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

147

Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication.

Weeping theory implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film

Boosted theory implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid

Boundary theory implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed

148

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

It is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

149

What substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

hyaluronate

150

What substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

Lubricin

151

What is a dialysate?

a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane

152

What is a transudate?

Any substance produced as a result of "sweating across" a membrane

153

What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

More than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial fluid.

154

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

The articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

155

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

(diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus and (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid

156

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar

157

What are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid joints?

Median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

158

What is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints?

An osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

159

What are examles of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) biconylar joints?

Temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

160

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints?

Radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints fo the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

161

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints?

Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

162

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints?

Femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder.

163

What is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid artery?

Carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone

164

At what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate?

The C3/C4 intervertebral disc at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage

165

What are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?

Cervical, petrous, cavernous and cerebral

166

What accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery in the middle cranial fossa?

Cavernous dural venous sinus

167

What branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text?

The opthalmic artery

168

What are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery?

Vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

169

What is the location of origin of the axillary artery?

At the outer border of the first rib

170

What is the segmental branch of the axillary artery?

Supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery

171

What branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text?

Posterior intercostal and subcostal arteries

172

What parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text?

Lumbar and median sacral arteries

173

What branches of the internal iliac were stressed in the text?

Iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries

174

WHat are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

The lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery

175

WHat are the segmental arteries of the 5th lumbar vertebra?

The iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

176

What vessels from the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein?

Superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein

177

What will the inferior opthalmic vein drain into?

The pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus

178

What does the superior opthalmic vein drain into?

the angular vein and the cavernous dural venous sinus

179

What will the cavernous dural venous sinus drain into?

The inferior petrosal dural venous sinus and superior petrosal dural venous sinus

180

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

Posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters.

181

What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

The intervertebral disc height

182

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

C5/C6

183

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

Anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

184

What are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

Uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, lateral lip or uncus

185

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

Anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

186

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint

187

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

Modified synovial (diarthrosis) sellar joint

188

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

Cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joint

189

How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

Five

190

How many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

Five

191

How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

Ten

192

How many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

Four

193

What is the purpose of the lymphatic capillaries?

Remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema

194

What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?

They begin as blind-ended sacs, have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries, and are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries and are more layered in plexus arrangements than blood capillaries.

195

How do lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins?

More numerous, possess more valves and anastomose more frequently than veins

196

What are the names of the ducts of the lymphatic system?

Right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct

197

WHat parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?

The right side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver

198

What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?

L2 from the cisterna chyli

199

What is the cisterna chyli?

A triangular dilation formed from the union of the intestinal, abdominal and lumbar trunks

200

What parts of the body will the thoracic duct drain?

The left side of the head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall, the left upper extremity, left lung, most of the liger, the remainder of the abdominal contents, all pelvic contents and both lower extremities.

201

What are the lymphatic organs?

Lymph nodules, lymph nodes (lymph glands), spleen and thymus

202

What will form the lymph nodule?

Migration and proliferation of T-cells from the thymus

203

Are the lymph nodules encapsulated?

No

204

What forms an aggregate lymph nodule?

The union of several solitary lymph nodules

205

What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?

Peyer's patches of the small intestine and the tonsils

206

What are the functions of lymph nodules?

Lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line) and to aid in the immune response

207

What is the function of lymph nodes?

They primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response

208

What joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

Anterior groove, posterior groove, right uncinate process, left uncinate process, spongy bone, anterior lip, posterior lip, right lateral groove, left lateral groove, spongy bond

209

What other terms are used to identify the uncinate process?

Unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus, lateral lip

210

WHat is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

Joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

211

The joint of Luschka is formed from what surfaces?

The uncinate process and lateral groove

212

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

Th longus colli muscle

213

What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

Posterolateral, 45 degrees

214

What is the outline of the vertebral foramen of a typical cervical vertebra?

Hear-shaped or triangular

215

Which is the greatest diameter of the vertebral foramen of typical cervicals?

Transverse

216

What soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen?

The transverse diameter of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord.

217

The greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at ___?

C6

218

The greatest frequency of osteophyte associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

C5/C6

219

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.

Costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

220

What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransverse muscles

221

What muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

Splenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intertransverse muscles

222

What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

Middle scalene and posterior intertransverse muscles

223

What produces the primary tension on the transverse process that will cause remodeling in the anteriolateral and inferior directions?

Cervical spinal nerves as they are directed anterolaterally and inferiorly to form the cervical and brachial plexuses

224

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

Sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

225

What is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)

226

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

The Carotid tubercle

227

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

The vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

228

What is the name of the lamina-pedicle junction of typical cervical vertebrae?

the articular pillar

229

What is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?

The groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

230

What nerve indents the articular pillar of typical cervical vertebrae?

The medial branch of the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

231

Recent work suggests what angulation for typical cervical articular facets?

Fifty-five to sixty degrees

232

What is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facet?

backward, upward, medial (BUM)

233

What is the orientation of the typical cervical inferior articular facet?

Forward, Lateral and Down (FoLD)

234

What muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?

The longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators

235

What muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses?

The semispinalis capitis, multifidis and rotator longus

236

What is the jointclassification fo the typical cervical zygapophysis?

Synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodia joint

237

What modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine?

Meniscoidal folds

238

What function will meniscoidal folds provide in cervical zygapophyses?

They are assumed to distribute pressure across the joint surface

239

The greatest range of flexion - extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?

Typically C5/C6

240

WHat motions are coupled in the cervical spine?

Lateral bending and axial rotation

241

Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will be similar for what cervical vertebral couples?

The C2/C3, C3/C4, C4/C5 vertebral couples

242

Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at what cervical vertebral couple?

The C5/C6 vertebral couples

243

What is the usual condition for the African-American typical cervical spinous process?

They are non-bifid

244

What muscles may attach to the typical cervical spinous process?

The spinalis cervicis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidis, rotators and interspinalis

245

What ligaments will attach to the typical cervical spinous process?

The interspinous ligament and ligamentum nuchae

246

What will form the unique anterior boundary of A typical cervical intervertebral foramen?

The uncinate process of the segment below and the lateral groove of the segment above forms the joint of Luschka

247

What forms the unique anterior boundary of the intervertebral foramen for the C4 Spinal nerve?

The lateral groove of C3 and uncinate process of C4 forming the joint of Luschka