1
Q
A protocol is defined as a(n):
A
Treatment plan for a specific illness or injury.
2
Q
What is a health benefit of limiting fat consumption?
A
Decreasing fat intake may reduce the risk of diabetes.
3
Q
The main cause for all forms of cancer is:
A
DNA mutation.
4
Q
E-cigarettes are unsafe because:
A
They are unregulated and may contain undisclosed harmful substances.
5
Q
The heart rate target zone for a 50-year-old is:
A
110.
6
Q
Two people should work together when lifting objects weighing more than:
A
60 pounds (27 kg).
7
Q
The % Daily Value indicates:
A
The percentage of each nutrient in a single serving relative to daily recommended amount.
8
Q
An active confronting process that involves gathering information and using the information to change or adjust is known as:
A
Coping.
9
Q
Clostridium difficile requires which type of transmission-based precaution?
A
Contact.
10
Q
The 2013 longitudinal EMS Attributes and Demographics Study (LEADS) found that:
A
Verbal violence occurred more often than did physical violence.
11
Q
According to the Haddon Matrix, what is an example of a pre-event strategy used to prevent injury of a child who is riding in a motor vehicle?
A
Reducing driving during high-risk times.
12
Q
The first step in developing an injury prevention program is to:
A
Conduct a community assessment.
13
Q
The goal of education in an injury prevention in an injury prevention program is:
A
Behavioral changes.
14
Q
The focus of public health currently is:
A
Prevention.
15
Q
When examining the timing associated with each phase of the Haddon Matrix, what would you expect to be the briefest?
A
Event.
16
Q
One of the most visible way in which EMS professionals have interacted with public health agencies is through:
A
The provision of immunizations.
17
Q
When a competent adult patient refuses medical care, it is more important for the paramedic to:
A
Ensure that the patient is well informed about the situation at hand.
18
Q
Which narrative system give the most complete picture of emergency care?
A
Patient management approach.
19
Q
What should be clearly documented in a patient care report?
A
The patient’s chief complaint.
20
Q
In what situation would the documentation on a patient care report most likely be limited?
A
Mass-casualty incident.
21
Q
Why should a patient care report be detailed?
A
For future legal needs.
22
Q
The accuracy of your patient care report depends on what factor?
A
Including the severity of the patient’s condition.
23
Q
What should be found in an electronic patient care report?
A
The same information as on a non-electronic patient care report.
24
Q
An accurate and legible patient care report:
A
Should be complete to the point that anyone who reads it understands exactly what transpired on the call.
25
Billing for a non-9-1-1 call will require what?
Physician certification statement.
26
What leads to a muffled voice on the radio?
Speaking more than 6 inches (15 cm) from the microphone.
27
What usually has the most powerful transmitter?
Base station radio.
28
When would a satellite system be most useful for EMS communications?
During a mass-casualty event.
29
The rise of computer technology in EMS created:
Telemedicine.
30
If several towns close in proximity to each other face budgetary constraints, what might they choose to do with EMS departments?
Form a consolidated public safety answering point.
31
A trunked radio system:
Reassigns channels after every call.
32
The routing of an electrocardiogram through the public safety answering point exemplifies:
Relaying medical information.
33
What shows the stage of a typical EMS event in correct order?
Occurence, detection, notification, arrival.
34
A paramedic can count on a cell phone connection to dispatch to be how secure?
Likely secure.
35
A living donor may be eligible to donate a(n):
Liver lobe.
36
The mature minor exception to parental consent typically begins at age:
16 years.
37
If a paramedic is in legal trouble based on past legal precedent, this stems from:
Common law.
38
A paramedic who physically assaults a patient who he or she is treating for a gunshot wound has committed:
Malfeasance.
39
A patient care report should be viewed:
Only by those legally authorized.
40
Good Samaritan laws are mostly intended to protect:
The public
41
To be able to help a noncompliant prisoner who refuses care for a life-threatening injury, you should consult:
The court.
42
What would legally override a valid out-of-hospital do not resuscitate order?
Nothing.
43
A patient who was released from the hospital 3 days earlier, after having abdominal surgery, returns to the same hospital with severe abdominal pain. A radiograph shows a pair of hemostats in the peritoneal cavity. This ethical dilemma arises from:
Error disclosure.
44
You will lose personal integrity if you:
Euthanize a patient contrary to you own morals.
45
If you would not feel comfortable in performing the same treatment in all similar cases, that action fails which test(s)?
Universalizability.
46
The paramedic should avoid:
Malfeasance.
47
When presented with an unaccompanied 80-year-old patient who is apneic, but has a weak pulse, making ethical decisions regarding patient care would be:
Complex in the moment.
48
Is the best interest of the patient always the physician's or EMS worker's top priority?
No. A balance needs to be found.
49
What is a dilemma arising over confidentiality?
A patient with a sexually transmitted disease (STD) does not want to discuss care in front of an STD-free spouse.
50
The ethical perspective of Confucianism can be summarized as:
"Seek to be in harmony with all of your neighbors."
51
After taking the original Hippocratic oath, the provider is obligated to:
Protect all patient interests.
52
How does the research method influence the overall study design?
It determines whether the design is descriptive or analytical.
53
If a researcher designed an observational study to address the relationship between diet and type 2 diabetes, a study comparing patients with type 2 diabetes to patients without type 2 diabetes based on how much saturated fat they consumed would be considered which type of study?
Case series.
54
What describes qualitative analysis
It allows development of broad, general concepts not obtainable through pure numeric analysis.
55
In 2014, which agency reaffirmed the focus of the National EMS Research Agenda?
Federal Interagency Committee for Emergency Medical Services.
56
In scientific research, a statement that proposes the relationship between two or more variables is called a:
Hypothesis.
57
The practice of basing prehospital care on current and scientific evidence is known as:
Evidence-based medicine.
58
A consent jury is comprised of a panel of:
Laypersons.
59
The medical abbreviation PIH is used by EMS systems to mean:
Pregnancy-induced hypertension.
60
What is one of the seven main odors?
Ethereal.
61
Hair growth arises from a small cluster of cells called the hair:
Papilla.
62
Movement of the thumb and little finger toward each other is known as:
Opposition.
63
The second meningeal layer is called the:
Arachnoid.
64
What statement accurately describes sebaceous glands?
Their secretions help protect the skin from bacteria.
65
The parietal serous membrane contacts the:
Thoracic cavity wall.
66
The sense of taste is mediated by cranial nerve:
VII.
67
The function of centrioles is:
Cellular movement.
68
A fracture of the orbital bone is commonly referred to as a:
Blowout fracture.
69
What is the function of a baroreceptor?
Monitoring changes in arterial pressure.
70
A patient is found to have hyperglycemia. What is a cause of this?
Deficient insulin levels in the blood.
71
The myocardium generates its own electrical impulses through a process called:
Automaticity.
72
During an acidotic state, the kidneys attempt to maintain a normal pH by:
Retaining bicarbonate.
73
The layer of tissue that lines the inside of the chest cavity is called the:
Parietal pleura.
74
The pulmonary circulation is responsible for:
Ensuring blood gets reoxygenated.
75
The first and second cervical vertebrae are called the:
Atlas and axis.
76
What white blood cells is formed in the thymus and works to rid the body of viruses and bacteria by direct invasion?
T lymphocyte.
77
The term inotropy refers to the:
Strength of myocardial contraction.
78
The process in which glucose is broken down to yield pyruvic acid is called:
Glycolysis.
79
What is typically found in the muscle cells and provide cell movement and contraction via interaction with actin and myosin?
Microfilaments.
80
The movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called:
Diffusion.
81
End-diastolic volume is primarily a reflection of:
Venous return to the heart.
82
Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the nose following severe head trauma suggests:
Cribriform plate.
83
Nicotinic receptors are found:
On skeletal muscle.
84
The gap that lies between each nerve cell is called the:
Synapse.
85
Approximately 97% of the oxygen that diffuses out of the alveoli:
Binds to hemogobin.
86
The Broca region of the left frontal lobe is responsible for the muscular actions that are associated with:
Speech.
87
The heart's primary pacemaker, which is located in the right atrium, is the:
SA node.
88
Atrial fibrillation can be interpreted by noting:
An irregularly irregular rhythm and absent P waves.
89
The presence of a J wave (Osborn wave) on the ECG is an indicator of:
Hypothermia.
90
An unresponsive, Pulseless, apneic patient presents with ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. After defibrillating the patient, you should:
Resume CPR and reassess the patient after 2 minutes.
91
Fibrinolysis may be contraindicated if the patient has:
Had major trauma or surgery within the past 8 weeks.
92
A demand pacemaker:
Generates pacing impulses only when it sense that the heart's natural pacemaker has fallen below a preset rate.
93
Sinus arrest is characterized by:
A dropped PQRST complex.
94
What statement regarding oxygen administration for a patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction is correct?
Treatment with oxygen should be individualized and titrated to maintain the Sp02 level above 94%.
95
Electrical capture during transcutaneous cardiac pacing is characterized by:
A pacemaker spike followed by a wide QRS complex.
96
A pathologic Q wave:
Is wider an 0.04 seconds and indicates that a myocardial infarction occurred in the past.
97
The proper compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer adult CPR when an oropharyngeal airway is in place is:
30:2
98
In addition to supplemental oxygen, treatment of a patient with left ventricular failure includes:
An IV of normal saline to keep the vein open and nitroglycerin.
99
The QRS in lead I is a negative deflection and the QRS in lead aVF is a positive deflection. This indicates:
Right axis deviation.
100
The firing of an artificial ventricular pacemaker causes:
A vertical spike followed by a wide QRS complex.
101
A regular rhythm with inverted P waves before each QRS complex, a ventricular rate of 70 beats/min, narrow QRS complexes, and a PR interval of 0.16 seconds should be interpreted as a(n):
Accelerated junctional rhythm.
102
You have just administered 0.4mg of sublingual nitroglycerin to a 60-year-old woman with severe chest pain. The patient is receiving supplemental oxygen and has an IV line of normal saline in place. After 5 minutes, the patient states that the pain has not subsided. You should:
Reassess her blood pressure.
103
Bombardment of the AV node by more than one impulse, potentially blocking the pathway for one impulse and allowing the other impulse to simulate cardiac cells that have already depolarized, is called:
Reentry.
104
A 56-year-old man presents with an acute onset chest pressure, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. His airway is patent, and his breathing is adequate. You should:
Administer supplemental oxygen.
105
In contrast to the right side of the heart, the left side of the heart:
Drives blood out of the heart against the relatively high resistance of the systemic circulation.
106
A wide QRS complex that is preceded by a normal P wave indicates:
An abnormality in ventricular conduction.
107
A 67-year-old woman presents with severe dyspnea, coarse crackles to all lung fields, and anxiety. She has a history of several myocardial infarctions and hypertension. What intervention will have the most immediate and postive effect?
Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation.
108
A patient's peripheral pulses become extremely weak during inhalation. This is called:
Pulsus paradoxus.
109
What clinical findings is suggestive of pneumonia in a patient with COPD?
Fever and localized crackles.
110
Bedridden patients who are immunocompromised and have excessive pulmonary secretions are prone to developing:
Pneumonia.
111
A known heroin abuser if found unconscious on a park bench. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. You should:
Assist ventilation with a bag-mask device, administer naloxone, and reassess his ventilatory status.
112
With regard to pulse oximetry, the more hypoxic a patient becomes:
The faster they desaturate.
113
What type of medication is montelukast (Singulair)?
Leukotriene blocker.
114
An otherwise healthy adult whose normal hemoglobin level is 12 to 14 g/dL typically will begin to exhibit cyanosis when:
About 5 g/dL of hemoglobin is destaturated.
115
COPD is characterized by:
Changes in pulmonary structure and function that are progressive and irreversible.
116
The body's immediate response to mild hypoxemia is:
Increased heart rate.
117
The main stem bronchus ends at the level of the:
Lobar bronchi.
118
You are dispatched to a residence for a 59-year-old man with difficulty breathing. The patient, who has a history of COPD, is conscious and alert. During your assessment, he tells you that he developed chills, fever, and a productive cough 2 days ago. Auscultation of his lungs reveals rhonchi to the left lower lobe. This patient is likely experiencing:
Pneumonia.
119
Uncontrollable coughing and hemoptysis in a cigarette smoker are clinical findings consistent with:
Lung cancer.
120
One of the hallmarks of a pulmonary embolism is:
Pleuritic chest pain that occurs after a strong cough.
121
You respond to a residence of an elderly man with sever COPD. You recognize the address because you have responded there numerous times in the recent past. You find the patient, who is clearly emancipated, seated in his recliner. He is on oxygen via nasal cannula, is semiconscious, and is breathing inadequately. The patient's daughter tells you that her father has an out-of-hospital DNR order, for which she is frantically looking. You should:
Recognize that he is experiencing end-stage COPD, begin assisting his ventilation, and contract medical control as needed.
122
When present are low levels, oxygen binds easily to hemoglobin molecules, resulting in:
Large changes in oxygen saturation when small changes in Pa02 occur.
123
A patient with status Asthmaticus commonly presents with:
Physical exhaustion and inaudible breath sounds.
124
What medication is an anticholinergic bronchodilator?
Ipratropium.
125
Unlike bronchodilator therapy, corticosteroid therapy:
Takes a few hours to reduce bronchial edema.
126
Polycythemia is a condition in which:
Increased platelet production causes the blood to become abnormally thick.
127
What statement regarding pharmacology is correct?
Pharmacology knowledge is constantly evolving based on consumer knowledge of disease prevention.
128
What statement regarding the intramuscular (IM) route of medication administration is correct?
Absorption is more rapid than a subcutaneous injection because of tissue blood flow.
129
The therapeutic index of a medication is defined as the:
Difference between the median effective dose and the median toxic dose.
130
What is a schedule II drugs?
Methadone.
131
A medication that binds to a receptor and prompts an expected response is said to be:
An agonist.
132
What medication alters the velocity of the conduction of electricity through the heart, it is said to have which type of effect?
Dromotropic.
133
You are administering an intramuscular injection of 5 mL of antibiotic to a patient. Where could this be placed?
Thigh.
134
If given by endotracheal tube, you should administer how many times the intravenous or intraosseous dose of a drug?
2 to 2.5
135
You are ordered to provide 10mg of an antibiotic to a child, and the antibiotic solution is discolored. What should you do?
Avoid giving the drug and report the problem.
136
One of the most common topical medications used by paramedics is:
Nitropaste.
137
What drug, when ordered, should make the paramedic immediately think of the sublingual route?
Nitroglycerin.
138
An air embolism of which volume would probably be fatal to a patient?
300 mL
139
The basic SI unit for length is the:
Meter.
140
To provide fluids to a 250-pound (113-kg) man, you should use an IV catheter that is at least which size?
18-gauge.
141
A patient needs to receive an antibiotic and analgesic by injection. Before mixing, you should first:
Check for compatibility.
142
What piece of equipment is needed to administer albuterol?
Nebulizer.
143
Upon arriving at the scene of a motorcycle crash, you are approached by an emergency medical responder (EMR). What is the most important information the EMR should provide to you?
Initial scene and patient assessment findings and any basic care that was provided to the patient.
144
What error made on an emergency call would be classified as a slip?
A paramedic decides not to perform an EKG on a patient with shortness of breath.
145
A paramedic recalls the outcome of a previous similar call when treating a patient. Since the treatment worked for the previous patient, the paramedic decides to implement the same course of treatment with the current patient. Which method to prevent medical errors should the paramedic have used in this situation?
Replace hindsight with insight.
146
When performing continuous quality improvement (CQI), It is most important to ensure that:
Treatment protocols and educational activities are regularly adapted to meet changing demands.
147
A physician bystander is the first on the scene of a car crash and wants to assume care of the patient. The physician shows their identification and signs an assumption of care form. By signing the form, the physician is agreeing to:
Assume all legal responsibility for the patient's outcome.
148
What is a component of the Institute for Health Care Improvement's (IHI) Triple Aim framework?
EMS system efficiency.
Paramedic 45-2
flashcards
Decks in class (40)
# Cards
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Chapter 1 Pre/Post30
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Chapter 2 Pre/Post30
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Chapter 3 Pre/Post30
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Chapter 4 Pre/Post30
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Chapter 5 Pre/Post30
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Chapter 6 Pre/Post30
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Chapter 7 Pre/Post30
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Chapter 8 Pre/Post30
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Chapter 9: Pre/Post Quiz30
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Chapter 1549
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Chapter 15 pop quiz146
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Chapter 23 Deck47
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Misc from popquiz66
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Phase 1 review86
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Phase 1 Exam116
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Chapter 21 Pre/Post10
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12 Lead interpretation12
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Axis Shifts19
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Cardiology Quiz 02/25/202650
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Cardiology Quiz 03/04/202640
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Cardiology Quiz 03/12/202660
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Midterm Practice Test148
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Chapter 10: Pre/Post Quiz30
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Chapter 11: Pre/Post Quiz30
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A&P Misc. Questions125
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Chapter 12: Pre/Post Quiz11
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Chapter 13: Pre/Post Quiz13
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Chapter 16: Pre/Post Quiz14
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Chapter 17: Pre/Post Quiz22
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Midterm26
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Neurology Pop Quiz 03/31/202615
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Practice Quiz 04/03/202669
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Chapter 22: Pre/Post Quiz35
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Chapter 24: Pre/Post Quiz32
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Chapter 29: Pre/Post Quiz33
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Chapter 22 & 29 Module Deck74
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Entirety Deck152
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22/29 Study Guide144
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Chapter 22 & 29 Module Test Deck98
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Practice Quiz Chapter 24,25,44 04/09/202675
