Neuroanatomy 2 Flashcards Preview

Neuroanatomy > Neuroanatomy 2 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Neuroanatomy 2 Deck (71):
1

what are the four components to a reflex

sensory, circuitry, motor, effector

2

what is the motor part of the autonomic system innervate

viscera, smooth muscles, and exocrine glands

3

how many neurons is the motor autonomic system pathway

2

4

what is the function of the micturition centre

voluntary control of micturition (inhibition and initiation)

5

what is the function of the pontine micturition centre

coordinates the contraction of the bladder (detrussor, ANS) with the internal (ANS) and external (SNS) urinary sphincters
does so by activate the parasymp and inhibitin the symp. Normally inhibited by the cortex (micturition centre)

6

how is the thoracic motor nuclei in the spinal cord involved with micturition

visceral motor neurons (smooth muscle of internal sphincter. needs to be inhibited to be relaxed)

7

how is the sacral motor nuclei in the spinal cord involved with micturition (type of neurons and functions)

has alpha-motor neurons (external sphincter and pelvic floor muscles) and visceral motor neurons (parasympathetic of detrusor muscles)

8

What is the pathophysiology of a cortical pathology leading to urinary incontinence

bilateral pathology in the medial frontal cortex

9

what does a cortical pathology leading to urinary incontinence look like

normal bladder emptying that is no longer under voluntary control

10

What is the pathophysiology of a spinal pathology above the sacrum leading to urinary incontinence

bilateral spinal cord lesion above sacral levels

11

What is the pathophysiology of a spinal pathology at the level of the sacrum leading to urinary incontinence

bilateral spinal cord lesion at the level of the sacrum or bilateral lesions in the nerve roots of cauda equina

12

what does a spinal pathology above the sacrum look like

pontine micturition center can no longer control reflexes, incomplete bladder emptying

13

what does a spinal pathology at the level of the sacrum look like

damaged motor output and/or sensory input driving reflex, severe urinary incontinence

14

what is the reticular formation

central core of diffuse nuclei that runs the entire length of the brainstem

15

what parts of the brain does it join

rostrally - diencephalon, caudally - intermediate gray matter of the spinal cord

16

what does the rostral reticular formation consist of and what does it work with

consists of mesencephalon (midbrain) and rostral pons
works with diencephalic nuclei

17

what does the caudal reticular formation consist of and what does it work with

consists of caudal pons and medulla
works with cranial nuclei and spinal cord

18

what does the rostral reticular formation do

alertness and consciousness
sleep
pain perception (anterolateral pathway)

19

what does the caudal reticular formation do

nociception
respiration and cardiovascular
somatic motor (medial motor system)
reflex
autonomic functions
pain perception

20

what is the importance of the nuclei in the reticular formation

some of them are nucleus containing NT including Ach, dopamine, NE, serotonin and histamine. cell bodies are in the RF and the axons are sent out to the cortex

21

other than NT, what are some of the nuclei associated with RF

periaqueductal gray matter controlling pain
chemotactic trigger zone (medulla) - nausea
some cranial nerve nuclei

22

where does the RF receive input

motor and visceral from forebrain (to rostral...don't sleep)
cerebellum (attention)
cranial nerves (V/VIII) (to caudal)
anterolateral pathway (for alertness and perception in caudal)

23

what is the output target for rostral RF

cortex

24

what is the output target for caudal RF

integration of cranial nerve activity

25

what is the pontomesencephalic formation part of and what is is responsible for

rostral RF and is responsible for alertness by sending signals to the thalamus, hypothalamus and basal forebrain which distributes the signal to the rest of the brain

26

what are the fours ways COMA can happen

1) distruption of ARAS (ascending reticular activating system)
2) lesion withing rostral RF
3) bilateral thalamic lesions involving intralaminar nuclei
4) extensive damage to bilateral cerebral cortical areas

27

what are the three levels of consciousness and what structures are involved

alertness - RF, thalamus, cortex
attention - above plus frontoparietal association cortex
awareness - above plus emotional, sensory, and motor information

28

which NT in the caudal RF is involved with modulating and inhibiting pain transmission

serotonin

29

how does the caudal RF modulate pain

Neurons located in the midline raphe (seam) nuclei (5-HT) and the Periaqueductal gray matter send their axons down into the spinal cord to regulate the activity of the anterolateral system at the level of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord (around where it dessucates)

30

what is the PreBotzinger complex

pattern generator for inspiration and expiration

31

which cranial nerves are somatic motor only and what is the exception

3, 4, 6, and 12 (3 is the exception as it also was parasympathetic)

32

what cranial nerves are special sensory only

1, 2, and 8

33

what cranial nerves are mixed nerves and what is the exception

5, 7, 9, 10, 11 (11 is the exception as it only has one function)

34

why is it important that cranial nerve VIII is the most lateral

its in the cerebellopontine angle - nausea and dizziness can indicate a lesion in this area (ie acoustic neuroma)

35

what is the location of cranial nerve nucleus from medial to lateral

somatic motor, branchial motor, parasympathetic, visceral sensory, general somatic sensory, special sensory

36

the mixed nerves all have a branchial motor aspect. which muscles do they target

V - muscles of mastication
VII - facial expression
IX - stylopharyngeus
X - soft palate, pharynx, larynx,
XI - trapezius, SCM

37

if you damage cranial nerves, what other structures can you damage

long tracts running next to cranial nuclei
cerebellum
reticular formation and other brainstem nuclei

38

what is a deficit in cranial nerve I

anosmia

39

what is a deficit in cranial nerve II

visual deficits (acuity, visual fields)

40

what is a deficit in cranial nerve III

somatic - ptosis, impaired eye movement, diplopia (double vision)
visceral - dilation of pupils (mydriasis), impaired pupillary reflex, loss of accommodation

41

what is a deficit in cranial nerve IV

impaired eye movement, diplopia

42

what is a deficit in cranial nerve V

impaired chewing, impaired somatosensory of the head

43

what is a deficit in cranial nerve VI

impaired eye movement (lateral), diplopia

44

what is a deficit in cranial nerve VII

impaired taste, impaired facial expression, somatosensory deficits to the ear, impaired tearing and salivation

45

what is a deficit in cranial nerve VIII

impaired hearing, vertigo, nystagmus, nausea and vomiting

46

what is a deficit in cranial nerve IX

impaired gag reflex, impaired salivation, hypertension, somatosensory deficits to external ear, impaired sensory to throat, impaired taste

47

what is a deficit in cranial nerve X

Somatic motor - hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, impaired articulation, impaired gag reflex
visceral motor - impaired peristalsis, hypertension, resp deficits
somatic sensory - external ear
special sensory - taste

48

what is a deficit in cranial nerve XI

drooped shoulder and head turning

49

what is a deficit in cranial nerve XII

impaired tongue movement - (UMN - away from lesion, LMN toward lesion), impaired articulation

50

what is horizontal diplopia

abducens nerve palsy

51

what is the MLF and what does it do

medial longitudinal fasciculus - makes sure that when the right medial rectus is activated, the left medial rectus is not activated. Essentially coordinates the movement of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves (particularly III and VI)

52

where is the centre for vertical eye movements (three parts)

midbrain at the mesencephalic RF near the oculomotor nucleus

53

where is the centre of the horizontal eye movements (three parts)

pons at the paramedian pontinereticular formation (PPRF) near the abducens nucleus

54

what is the frontal eye field in charge of

scanning (saccades)

55

what is the posterior eye filed in charge of

tracking (smooth pursuit)

56

what are the three nuclei of cranial nerve V

mesencephalic nuclei, main sensory nuclei, descending spinal nuclei

57

what information does the mesencephalic nucleus receive

proprioceptive info

58

what information does the main sensory nuclei receive

discriminative touch

59

what information does the descending spinal nuclei receive

pain and temperature
also fibres from VII, IX and X (seems like the ones that also have taste functions) for larynx and pharynx

60

what areas do the trigeminal nerve receive touch and pain info from

territories V1, V2, V3, nasal sinuses, inside nose and mouth, anterior 2/3 of mouth

61

what areas do the trigeminal nerve only recieve pain info from

supraenterorial dura mater

62

what nerves cover the infraentorial dura mater pain sensation

X, XI and first three cervical nerves

63

what is trigeminal neuralgia

recurrent episodes of brief but severe pain in V2 or V3

64

what is the treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

anticonvulsants and muscle relaxers

65

how do you tell the difference between an UMN lesion and LMN of cranial nerve VII

UMN=forehead is spared

66

what are the sensory and motor cranial nerves of the pupillary light reflex

II, III

67

what are the sensory and motor cranial nerves of the accommodation reflex

II, III

68

what are the sensory and motor cranial nerves of the jaw jerk reflex

V, V

69

what are the sensory and motor cranial nerves of the corneal reflex

V, VII

70

what are the sensory and motor cranial nerves of the vestibular-ocular reflex

VIII, III+IV+VI

71

what are the sensory and motor cranial nerves of the gag reflex

IX, X