Set G Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following statement is true?

a. Children who display overt antisocial behaviors usually come from families with lower levels of conflict and support as compared to those who display covert antisocial behaviors
b. Children with covert antisocial behavior appear to be more social, less anxious, and more suspicious of others
c. Children with covert destructuve behaviors especially those who bully a lot may be at a higher risk for psychiatric problems growing up
d. Children with overt nondestructive behaviors may demonstrate their stubbornness and being touchy constantly

A

d. Children with overt nondestructive behaviors may demonstrate their stubbornness and being touchy constantly

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2
Q

2 children were referred to you for an evaluation. Leo, a 6 years old, was oobserved to often lose his temper and be angry towards others. This is especially true when interacting with his teachers whom he often disobeys and deliberately annoys. The other 7 year olds, Mary, has a much more pleasing modd with her parents pointing out that she doesn’t really get angry or have temper tantrums. However, she appears to have a problem complying with her teachers’ requests, has an argumentative attitude, often blames others when she fails in her exams, and shows her spite towards peers she doesn’t like. Your colleague seems to think that both kids have ODD. What is your opinion of this?

a. Agree
b. Disagree, both children seems to have another disorder such as DMDD
c. Partially agree, since Mary is needed to be observed more
d. Partially disagree, since it may be possible to diagnose ODD if they were older

A

a. Agree

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3
Q

According to the DSM-5, ODD often precedes the development of:

a. ADHD-HI
b. DMDD
c. Childhood onset-CD
d. IED

A

c. Childhood onset-CD

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4
Q

With regards to the processes that make up or our moment-to-moment attention, children with ADHD are said to have:

a. an overly balanced type 1 and type 2 attention process
b. a dominant type 1 with a weaker type 2 attention process
c. a dominant type 2 with a weaker tyep 1 attention process
d. lowered levels of both type 1 and type 2 attention process

A

b. a dominant type 1 with a weaker type 2 attention process

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5
Q

All the following statements about ADHD are not least likely untrue but perhaps one. Which one is it?

a. ADHD has once been called hypokinesis which is related to poor filtering of stimuli to the brain
b. Excessive inattention is often first observed during the toddler years of the child
c. During adolescence, fidgetiness and being impatient replace running and climbing
d. Symptoms related to normative behaviors may be hard to determine before the age of 10

A

c. During adolescence, fidgetiness and being impatient replace running and climbing

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6
Q

Looking into studies of children with ADHD, symptoms of inattention tend to predict the following except?

a. Academic problems
b. Peer neglect
c. Peer rejection
d. None of the above

A

c. Peer rejection

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7
Q

A teacher has observed that Miguel shouts out his answer in class too quickly during activities that require thorough thinking but also sometimes responds too slowly in timed activities. Miguel probably has a deficit in _________ common among children with

a. distractability; autism
b. alerting; ADHD
c. regulation; ODD
d. social cuing; Social communication disorder

A

b. alerting; ADHD

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8
Q

Which of the following factors reliably how a child with autism fares later in life?

a. Language skills and IQ
b. Social skills and EQ
c. Language skills and academic achievement
d. Social skills and self-regulation

A

a. Language skills and IQ

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9
Q

Leo Kramer was one of the early psychiatrists who described the parents of those with autism as:

a. Alienated parents
b. Socially inept parents
c. Robotic parents
d. Refrigerator parents

A

d. Refrigerator parents

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10
Q

Which of the following aligns with a psychoanalytic view on autism?

a. Defenses of withdrawal and rationalization are prominent among parents
b. There is a parental wish that the child should not exist
c. There is a parental repressed desire to have a perfect child
d. Dominance of the id and the immatureness of the ego is what leads to autism

A

b. There is a parental wish that the child should not exist

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11
Q

Which of the following statements about neurological influences regarding autism is true?

a. Young children with autism have a smaller amygdala as compared to children without autism
b. Children with autism have lowered levels of serotonin which is important in developing bonds and regulating emotions
c. Adults with autism have the same amygdala size as compared to adults without autism
d. None of the above

A

c. Adults with autism have the same amygdala size as compared to adults without autism

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12
Q

As a clinician, focusing on which oof the following makes it difficult for you to differentiate between autism and ADHD?

a. Abnormalities in attention
b. Presence or absence of restricted behaviors
c. Presence of absence of unusual interests
d. Abnormalities in positive bias

A

a. Abnormalities in attention

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13
Q

A child was brought to you to be assessed for autism. Through several assessment tools, you found the typical patterns of autism such as difficulties in reciprocating emotions, trouble with non-verbal communication, deficits in understanding relationships, repetitive movements such as lunging and biting herself, insistence on sameness, and hyper-reactivity to sensory input. You think that an additional diagnosis of stereotypic movement disorder is needed for this case, but your colleague thinks otherwise. Which on of you is correct?

a. You are correct since that can be a focus of treatment
b. Your colleague is corret since stereotypes are already part of criterion B
c. You are correct only if the child is young and lacking support
d. Your colleague is correct since another diagnosis is warranted instead

A

a. You are correct since that can be a focus of treatment

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14
Q

When it comes to communication, children with autism

a. have no trouble with instrumental and expressive gestures
b. have problems with instrumental gestures but no problems with expressive gestures
c. have no problems with instrumental gestures but have problems with expressive gestures
d. have trouble with both instrumental and expressive gestures

A

c. have no problems with instrumental gestures but have problems with expressive gestures

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15
Q

Which of the following is an essential feature of augmentative communication systems useful for the treatment of children with autism?

a. Pictures
b. Sounds
c. Video
d. Games

A

a. Pictures

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16
Q

Those diagnosed with adolescent-onset CD are expected to:

a. have less normative peer relationships growing up
b. engage in crimes but of a less likely violent nature
c. manifest in adolescent boys rather than girls
d. have same persistence in their antisocial behaviors as compared to others

A

b. engage in crimes but of a less likely violent nature

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17
Q

Ayonokoji is a student who is assessed to have CD. Although he hides his conduct problems well, he has hurt others, destroyed property, and has been deceitful. Others would even note that he seems to be unconcered about the effects of his actions towards others. He has detached nature who seems to be unable to show or express emotions. Comparing Ayanokoji with other children of similar problems, engaging in aggressive behaviors would most likely be:

a. useful in spiting others who hurt him
b. a means to gain something
c. something he does just because he can do it
d. expressed to intimidate others

A

b. a means to gain something

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18
Q

If you wanted to help people with Kleptomania, which of the following would you do?

a. Reduce opioid acticity
b. Heighten the dopamine levels
c. Decrease the serotonin levels
d. None of the above

A

a. Reduce opioid acticity

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19
Q

Which of the following terms is closely associated with Kleptomania?

a. Antidepressant behavior
b. Manic-depressive state
c. Supra-stealing behavior
d. Impulsive compulsion

A

a. Antidepressant behavior

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20
Q

Hans was referred to you by the police due to his recent involvement in several fire incidents in his neighborhood in the past year. When asked why he did it, Hans would just laugh and say “because fire fascinates me.” Looking into past records, there have also been complaints over the last year against Hans with regards to bullying his classmates. Even Hans’ parents don’t know what to do with him since he often skips school to hangout wuth his friends who supposedly influenced his curiosity on explosives. If you were to diagnose Hans, the best diagnosis would be:

a. Pyromania
b. CD
c. CD with pyromania
d. ASPD with pyromania

A

b. CD

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21
Q

If you were to investigate the history of people who impulsively set fires, you often find that they have problems with what psychoactive substance?

a. Cocaine
b. LSD
c. Tobacco
d. Alcohol

A

d. Alcohol

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22
Q

Which of the following goes against the nature of parent management training and its related approached?

a. “You have to act consistently around your child”
b. “You can start working with your child as young as 2 years old”
c. “Trust your instinct as a parent. You know your child the best”
d. “Set limits with your child and punish through extinction if necessary”

A

c. “Trust your instinct as a parent. You know your child the best”

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a. Most, if not all, children with ODD develop CD
b. When a child fist the criteria for both CD and ODD, CD should be diagnosed sinces it is much more severe
c. One way to distinguish if a given case fits either ODD or CD is by examining if problems of emotional dysregulation are present
d. All of the above

A

c. One way to distinguish if a given case fits either ODD or CD is by examining if problems of emotional dysregulation are present

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24
Q

“Let’s party and binge-drink tonight!” says your friend 3 days after your board exam. Your friend is suggesting which of the following?

a. That you drink 5 or more drinks on one occasion
b. That you drink 4 or more drinks on one occasion
c. That you drink 7 or more in a span of 8 hours
d. That you drink 6 to 8 drinks in a span of 8 hours

A

a. That you drink 5 or more drinks on one occasion

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25
Which of the following statements accurately describes amphetamines? a. It speeds up the reuptake of dopamine in the brain which leads to a high b. Even at high doses, psychosis is rarely experienced by those who take amphetamines c. People with autism are often prescribed with amphetamines to help manage symptoms d. It helps increase norepinephrine in the system by blocking its reabsorption process
d. It helps increase norepinephrine in the system by blocking its reabsorption process
26
A psychodynamic explanation for substance addiction tells us that individuals with this disorder have: a. self-directed hatred which manifests as drinking or smoking b. affection and approval needs that have not been met c. powerful dependency needs related to help and comfort d. sexual frustration which leads to drinking as a substitute for sexual oral activity
c. powerful dependency needs related to help and comfort
27
Which of the following statements is accurate with regards to gambling disorder? a. Unlike the typical substance additction, people and GD have a unique pattern of behavior b. It is suggested that there is an indirect relationship between distress and gambling c. Larger volumes in the amygdala and heightened activity in all the ventromedial prefrontal cortex have been found d. Novelty-seeking, optimism, and impulsivity are common personality traits associated with this disorder
d. Novelty-seeking, optimism, and impulsivity are common personality traits associated with this disorder
28
During your last party, your friend took a lot of LSD. Under the influence of LSD, you know that a state of synesthesia might be experienced. Which of the following statements made by your friend resembles this experience? a. "Look at those tunes, my friend! Don't you just love the taste of red?" b. "Everything is so slow, look at my hand waving bro, it's like I have many hands" c. "I can't feel anything/ Lie down with me and relax, friend. Chill life is the best" d. "Too bright! The lights are too bright, the music too loud. I feel so alive!"
a. "Look at those tunes, my friend! Don't you just love the taste of red?"
29
Which of the following are expected effects when taking cannabis? a. A mix of hallucinogenic, depressanr, and stimulant effects b. A mix of hallucinogenic and stimulant but not depressant effects c. Feelings of joy and relaxation but not anxiety or suspiciousness d. Feelings of anxiety or suspiciousness but not joy and relaxation
a. A mix of hallucinogenic, depressanr, and stimulant effects
30
Which of the following statements accurately describes differences between adults and adolescence in terms of substance abuse? a. Adolescents are less likely to show cognitive features associated with abuse such as disorientation b. Adults tend to drink more often and more consistently over time c. Adolescents are less likely to binge-drink as compared to adults d. All of the above
b. Adults tend to drink more often and more consistently over time
31
A patient with schizophrenia was referred to you. As a follower of family systems perspective, you know that there is a high chance that this patient's parents are most likely: a. Critical and overinvolved b. Neglectful and avoidant c. Permissive and uncanning d. Constantly worried and afraid
a. Critical and overinvolved
32
Which of the following is true for schizoaffective disorder? I. A diagnosis is given for schizoaffective if the mood disturbances are concurrent with psychotic symptoms for a significant duration of active symptoms II. A diagnosis is given when the mood disturbances and psychotic symptoms go together all of the time III. A diganosis of schizoaffective is given when psychotic symptoms appear only during times when symptoms for a manic/depressive episode are met IV. A diagnosis of schizoaffective is given when there is a 1-week duration where pure psychotic symptoms are observed without the presence of mood disturbances a. Only I is true b. Only IV is true c. II and III is true d. I and III is true
a. Only I is true
33
What is considered as the most common "basic characteristic of madness" in patients with schizophrenia? a. Auditory hallucinations b. Delusions of persecution c. Derailment/loose association d. Catatonic rigidity
b. Delusions of persecution
34
Contrary to modern understanding, schizophrenia was once popularly thought to be a split in: a. Sense of self b. Reality and fantasy c. Intelligence d. Personality
d. Personality
35
A friend of yours asked tou about a relative she has that has schizophrenia. She tols that her relative had been undergoing extensive treatment and she would like to know if there is a possibility of recovery. Which of the following questions would you least likely ask with regards to recovery? a. "How was your relative before the symptoms started?" b. "Did you notice if your relative changed suddenyl or was it gradual?" c. "Has your relative changed his/her lifestyle and habist?" d. "When did your relative start receiving treatment?"
c. "Has your relative changed his/her lifestyle and habist?"
36
Biological explanations of schizophrenia point to a brain subcircuit responsible for "deficit schizoprenia". Which parts of the brain are included in this brain circuit? a. Hippocampus and amygdala b. Amygdala and substantia nigra c. Striatum and substantia nigra d. Amygdala and striatum
a. Hippocampus and amygdala
37
All of the following are true with regards to the development of schizophrenia except for? a. Patients usually undergo a prodromal stage---a 1-2 year period after the serioud symmtoms occur with less of the serioud symptoms b. The highest period of risk in developing a full-blown psychotic disorder is within the 2-year duration following first displays of mild symptoms c. Sometimes, a stressor or traumatic event triggers the active phase of schizophrenia d. Severe symptoms of schizophrenia may first come out during late adolescence or early adulthood
a. Patients usually undergo a prodromal stage---a 1-2 year period after the serioud symmtoms occur with less of the serioud symptoms
38
A major risk in the long-term use of neuroleptics is tardice dyskinesia. The most common sign associated with this is: a. Lip smacking b. Eye blinking c. Facial grimacing d. Involuntary chewing
a. Lip smacking
39
This approach in treating schizophrena uses simple tasks such as responding as quickly as possible to stimuli presented on a computer screen: a. Social skills trainig b. Token economy c. Information-processing recovery training d. Cognitive remediation
d. Cognitive remediation
40
A distinguishing feature of schizophrenia disorder is its lack of: a. criterion requiring impairment in social/occupational functioning b. criterion which specifies the exact duration of the disorder c. criterion on cases where the patient has symptoms for less than 6 months bit has not yet recovered d. None of the above
c. criterion on cases where the patient has symptoms for less than 6 months bit has not yet recovered
41
A patient who is suspected to have paranoid personality disorder was referred to you. Knowing the nature of the sidorder, which of the following would you most likely to? a. Set limits early and often b. Avoid being too friendly c. Pressure the client a little bit while being tactfu; d. Avoid explaining everything you do
b. Avoid being too friendly
42
Unlike opther disorders, those with schizoid personality disorder a. often have unusual ways of thinking such as ideas of reference b. have better contact with reality than those with scizohphrenia c. often have better social skills but are just not expressed d. may have an unsuccessful work career even when isolated
b. have better contact with reality than those with scizohphrenia
43
Which of the following statements would a person with scizotypal PD least likely say? a. "Did you know that I can talk with the dead?" b. "Wait, let me just pass through this dome 3 times to avoid bad luck" c. "I'm not talkable right now. Maybe later when the sun is clam" d. "Don't you see her? There's someone in the room with us"
d. "Don't you see her? There's someone in the room with us"
44
A police officer came to you asking for your help. He wanted to know more about psychopaths and how to differentiate between those who are caught by the law and those who are not. Knowing about the studies related to this, you tell him: a. "Psychopaths are considered criminals" b. "Those who usually get into trouble are those who are from a lower SES" c. "Look into differences in intelligence scores. Those who have higher IQ are less likely to encounter serious problems" d. "Assess differences in their history"
c. "Look into differences in intelligence scores. Those who have higher IQ are less likely to encounter serious problems"
45
What is a common lifelong pattern among individuals with ASPD? a. Substance abuse b. Major depression c. Criminality d. Gambling
a. Substance abuse
46
The following are typical defense mechanisms used by people with BPD except for? a. projective identification b. Splitting c. Idealization d. Isolation of affect
d. Isolation of affect
47
Which of the following is true for those with BPD? a. People with BPD who are most impulsive have problems with lower dopamine levels b. Childhood sexual abuse is necessary but not sufficient in producing BPD c. Women with BPD often show inwardly directed aggression which is a pattern that's similar to men d. Emergence of BPD in cultures undergoing rapid change is likely to happen
d. Emergence of BPD in cultures undergoing rapid change is likely to happen
48
Which of the following statements would an individual with HPD most likely say if they deny their personality disorder? a. "I'm not phony!" b. "I'm not angry all the time!" c. "I'm not reckless!" d. "I'm not a control freak!"
a. "I'm not phony!"
49
A colleague of yours wants to know what to focus on when giving therapy for individuals with HPD. Which of the following advice may be most helpful in this scenario? a. "Teach the client that dramatizing problems will get nowhere" b. "Inform the client that manipulation will not get him/her what they really want in the long term." c. "Educate the client that being trusting towards proper authority figures is okay if they take care of the relationships" d. "Explain to the client that he/she can really be the victim for most of her relationships"
b. "Inform the client that manipulation will not get him/her what they really want in the long term."
50
Unlike those with HPD, those with dependent PD are: a. dependent on others for praise b. less likely to seek love c. less likely flamboyant d. independent of others for guidance
c. less likely flamboyant
51
Psychodynamic theorists believe that people with paranoid PD primarily use which defense mechanism? a. Displacement b. Isolation of affect c. Projection d. Rationalization
a. Displacement
52
From a socio-cultural standpoint, which of the following questions helps us determine whether a client's distrust is normal or part of a diagnosis of paranoid PD? a. "Are you a refugee?" b. "Do you have family with you?" c. "Are you part of a low-income household?" d. "Do you feel threatened by me?"
a. "Are you a refugee?"
53
An individual with suspected schizoid PD was brought to your clinic. After the interview, your colleague claims that the client doesn't have schizoid PD and instead has autism. Overseeing the rest of the assessment, what would you look for to clarify this matter? a. Indifference to companionship b. Stereotypic interests c. Degree of isolation d. Presence of hallucinations
b. Stereotypic interests
54
Treating someone with schizoid PD requires that you start by: a. emphasizing the value of social relationships b. teaching basic communication skills c. educating the client on the nature of intimacy d. practicing day-to-day scial greetings
a. emphasizing the value of social relationships
55
The following are accurate comparisons for those with avoidant PD and SAD except for what? a. Some believe that both are distinct disorders due to the differences in risk factors b. Avoidant PD may occur in the absence of SAD c. Avoidant PD may be considered a more severe form of SAD, thus it is viewed as a continuum d. Negative self-concept may be more stable and pervasive in SAD than in avoidant PD
d. Negative self-concept may be more stable and pervasive in SAD than in avoidant PD
56
Around 30% of those with OCD have a lifetime tic disorder. This is especially true for: a. Women with onset of OCD during adolescence b. Men with onset of OCD during childhood c. Women with onset of OCD during childhood d. Men with onset of OCD during adolescence
b. Men with onset of OCD during childhood
57
Robin can barely stop thinking about hurting his co-worker. Every time he is in the office and thinks of these thoughts, he says a prayer and tries to control himself. At first, he notices that he only has these thoughts when he is in the office but now even when he is home, he chooses to think about this co-worker more and more. Sometimes, Robin thinks about this co-worker for more than an hour and feels pleasure every time he tenses and relaxes his fist. What can you say about Robin's condition? a. There is a presence of an obsession but not a compulsion b. There is a presence of an obsession that's about to be a compulsion c. Both obsession and compulsion are present d. Both obsession and compulsio are absent
d. Both obsession and compulsio are absent
58
If someone with OCD were forced to stop their rituals, the initial thought might be: a. "It's my fault that something bad will happen" b. "It's others' fault that something bad will happen" c. "It's the world's fault that something bad will happen" d. None of the above
a. "It's my fault that something bad will happen"
59
The cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical circuit is often found to be hyperactive among those with OCD. Neurotransmitters involved with this circuit are the following except? a. Norepinephrine b. Serotonin c. Glutamate d. Dopamine
a. Norepinephrine
60
Which of the following statements is true of ERP therapy? I. Clients are directed to control their obsessions through cognitive reframing II. Progressive muscle relaxation is done every time a compulsion triggering stimuli is present III. Rituals are played out until eventually the behavior becomes extinct IV. It allows for testing the validity of obsessions a. I and IV is true b. Only II is true c. III and IV is true d. Only IV is true
d. Only IV is true
61
When you visited your friend's home, you noticed that there were lots of things that were seemingly cluttered in your friend's garage. Piles of books and old magazines, which your friend says is important, were present and scattered around. What can you say about your friend's condition? a. Emotional attachment to possessions is quite common b. The collected items may not be limited to possessions that most would define as useless c. Distress may be fest when attempting to clear out the clutter d. None of the above
d. None of the above
62
Which of the following is a prominent difference between those who engage in object hoarding vs animal hoarding? a. Poorer insight among those with animal hoarding b. Better sanitary conditions among those with animal horading c. The lack of emotional attachment in object hoarding as compared to animal hoarding d. All of the above
a. Poorer insight among those with animal hoarding
63
Aira thinks that everyone notices her physical defects. These thoughst pre-occupy her for most of the day ad cause her distress. The following are expected behaviors for someone with her condition except for what? a. Loathing and being embarrassed about the physical defect b. Taking excessive selfies of herself c. Feel better after repeated dermatology treatment d. Have delusions of reference where she notices people talk about her
c. Feel better after repeated dermatology treatment
64
If an individual has concerns about being overweight and feels as if this weight contributes to his/her abnormal shape which he/she must check repeatedly because other people are talking about him/her, the diagnosis: a. is an ED but not BDD b. is BDD but an ED c. may be both BDD and an ED d. may be delusional disorder, somatic type
c. may be both BDD and an ED
65
Which of the following statements is true about excoriation and trichotillomania? I. Excoriation is more common among males than females II. Both may be accompanied by anxiety or boredom III. A diagnosis of excoriation requires the presence of formication IV. People with trichotillomania often have repeated lip chewing a. I and III is true b. II and IV is true c. Only II is true d. Only III is true
b. II and IV is true
66
A patient was brought to your clinic with multiple lesions and injuries all over the arms and body. Your colleague suspects that this is a case of excoriation. Which of the following is the least useful question to ask when ruling out other conditions? a. "Do you feel like you covered with germs?" b. "Is it your intention to harm yourself?" c. "Do you feel as if people notice your flaws?" d. "Have you attempted to stop picking att your skin?"
d. "Have you attempted to stop picking att your skin?"
67
A psychodynamic perspective on OCD tells us the following except for a. the fight between id impulses and defense mechanisms is played out overtly b. isolation, undoing, and reaction formation are common defenses used c. the root of this disorder is in the anal stage of development d. the ego seems to break down and attempts to achieve contact with reality
d. the ego seems to break down and attempts to achieve contact with reality
68
A diagnosis of adjustment disorder means that you might experience which of the following events? a. Motor vehivle accident b. Divorce c. Life threatening illness d. Any of the above
d. Any of the above
69
Two days after Ronald found out that he had failed in a major subject, he become nervous, jittery, tearful, and hopeless. He was clearly distressed and unable to participate in any social activities. On the 3rd day, Ronald was assessed and diagnosed with adjustment disorder. What can you say about this situation? a. The diagnosis should have been acute stress disorder since trauma related symptoms have quickly appeared b. The diagnosis should have been PTSD if careful assessment were done and symptoms lasted for at least a month c. The diagnosis of adjustment disorder cannot be given since it has only been a few days from the onset of the stressor d. None of the above
d. None of the above
70
A diagnosis of prolonged grief disorder in adults is given after have elapsed since the death of someone close to the bereaved: a. 12 months b. 6 months c. 3 months d. 1 month
a. 12 months
71
Prolonged grief among young children who losta caregiver is typically expressed in the following ways except? a. Protest when daily activities are done differently by another caregiver b. Express and understand numbing sensations c. Searching for the deceased d. Repeatedly ask about death
b. Express and understand numbing sensations
72
A patient who was diagnosed with PTSD has been referred to your clinic. To determine whether this client has greater impairment and distress as compared to other cases, what should you be looking for? a. Absence of positive symptoms b. Age of the client during the ttrauma c. Presence of dissociative symptoms d. How acute the onset of the symptoms was after the trauma
c. Presence of dissociative symptoms
73
Looking into pre-traumatic risk factors associated with trauma, which of the following individuals are more likely to develop PTSD if they experience personal trauma? a. Individuals with lower sense of social belonging b. Individuals with higher levels of anxiety c. Individuals with higher levels of impulsivity d. Individuals with lower vigilance
b. Individuals with higher levels of anxiety
74
A biological perspective on PTSD tells us that certain structures in the brain are involved. Which of the following is true about these structures? a. There is heightened amygdala activity and lower prefrontal cortex activity b. There is heighetened activity in both hippocampus and lower prefrontal cortex c. There is lower amygdala activity and heightened locus coeruleus activity d. There is lower locus coeruleus and prefrontal cortex activity
a. There is heightened amygdala activity and lower prefrontal cortex activity
75
In treatment for people with PTSD, exploration of "hot sopts" is done with encourage recovery when doing prolonged exposure. These hot spots refer to: a. the negative schemas created post-trauma b. dreadful memories of the traumatic experience c. physical places where the traumatic event occurred d. awful experiences prior to the traumatic event
b. dreadful memories of the traumatic experience
76
Gunther is disoriented . He describes his experience as suddenly being "awake" in a strange place, with unfamiliar people in a job he never signed up for. When asked, he expressed that he had come from a place across the sea and doesn't know how he got me. He says that his name isn't Gunther, it is George. Which of the following statements is true for what he experienced? a. His behaviors are sure to be seen as odd, erratic, or unorganized during this dissociative period b. Alternate personalities might take over and emerge during these states c. This experience always ends gradually with the person slowly regaining memories d. Memories during this period are often lost once the person recovers
d. Memories during this period are often lost once the person recovers
77
Common among individuals with dissociative amnesia are histories of trauma with the most common being: a. Vehicular accidents b. Chronic illness c. Child abuse d. Death of a loved one
c. Child abuse
78
The following disorders have features of experiencing detachment from oneself and unreal experience of the environment except for? a. PTSD b. BPD c. Panic disorder d. Delusional disorder
d. Delusional disorder
79
Because the experience is so unreal, individuals with depersonalization/derealization disorder have a common fear of: a. irreversible brain damage b. a severe, underlying health condition c. early or premature death d. losing their consciousness
a. irreversible brain damage
80
Eva White is a subpersonality of Catherine. She has met other alternate personalities and have talked with all of them as they have to her. When she "fronts", she could interact with other alters freely and observe them interacting with each other. This is what is called: a. Mutually amnesic relationship b. One-ways amnesic relationship c. Mutually cognizant relationship d. Multiple interactive relationship
c. Mutually cognizant relationship
81
As you were talking to Ursula, one of the many alternate personalities of Lilian, you noticed that she suddenly stopped talking, switched her posture, and seemed to appear like a different person. Her disorder is associated with activation or inhibition of the following brain regions except? a. Hippocampus b. Locus Coeruleus c. Orbitofrontal cortex d. Amygdala
b. Locus Coeruleus
82
To differentiate whether a client has DID or a psychotic disorder, it can often be helpful to investigate their auditory hallunications. Which of the following questions is most helpful in differentiating both cases? a. How clearly can you hear the voices? b. How manye voices are present? c. What are the voices telling you to do? d. Where are the voices coming from?
d. Where are the voices coming from?
83
Which personality feature is often rated as highest among individuals with DID? a. Avoidant personality features b. Obsessional personality features c. Narcissistic personality features d. Paranoid personality features
a. Avoidant personality features
84
A follower of the post-traumatic model considers the following as critcal factors in developing DID except for? a. Capacity to dissaciate b. Encapsulating the trauma c. Lack of environemtnal support d. Self-esteem and efficacy beliefs
d. Self-esteem and efficacy beliefs
85
Some theorists who agree with self-hypnosis theory believe that DID begins between the ages of: a. 4-6 years old b. 6-8 years old c. 3-5 years old d. 5-7 years old
a. 4-6 years old
86
Which of the following is true about delirium? a. It is an insidious state of confusion and disorientation b. It must emerge in the context of a neurocogntivie disorder c. Psychotic symptoms may occur during this state d. Delirium only lasts for munutes to several hours
c. Psychotic symptoms may occur during this state
87
You approached your friend who is an expert on the most common neurocognitive disorder. While conversing with this friend, he/she is least likely to agree with the following except? a. That women are less prone to this disorder than men b. That onset at middle age is most common c. That delays in information processing is its most prominent feature d. That you do not need to have a family history of this disorder to have it
d. That you do not need to have a family history of this disorder to have it
88
A proponent of the cognitive reserve hypothesis is most likelt to recommed which of the following? a. "Get a master's degree!" b. "Get physically fit to help you mentally!" c. "Watch more interesting movies!" d. "Have more social connections!"
a. "Get a master's degree!"
89
Which of the following tasks can help you differentiate between NCD due to Alzheimer's and Vascular NCD? a. Sally-Anne task b. Information-processing tasks c. Visuo-constructive tasks d. Language and executive function tasks
b. Information-processing tasks
90
An Apo ________ gene found in chromosome ________ is found among individuals who are most vulnerable to Alzheimer's. Which of the following is correct? a. E-1; 17 b. E-3; 16 c. E-2; 18 d. E-4; 19
d. E-4; 19
91
Among individuals with Huntington's disease, there is a progressive deterioration of the _________ affecting body movement and posture: a. Cerebellum b. Basal ganglia c. Pre-frontal cortex d. Corpus callosum
b. Basal ganglia
92
To differentiate between NCD due to Parkinson's disease and NCDLB, the imprtant question to answer is related to: a. How b. What c. Why d. When
d. When
93
Which of the following is true for those with Korsakoff's syndrome? a. A deficiency in vitaminD is common among those with this disorder b. It is a syndrome relevant only for those who are chronically alcoholic c. Despite memory loss, general level of intelligence is often maintained d. Despite the difficulty learning new information, there are no gaps in memories of past experiences
c. Despite memory loss, general level of intelligence is often maintained
94
According to Alzheimer's association, the drugs currently precribed for individuals with Alzheimer's disease targets which of the following neurotransmitters? a. Acetylcholine and glutamate b. Endorphins and dopamine c. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine d. Serotonin and glutamate
a. Acetylcholine and glutamate
95
Which of the following best describes the pattern of cognitive deterioration among those with Alzheimer's disease? a. Slow-slow-fast b. Fast-slow-fast c. Slow-fast-slow d. Fast-slow-slow
c. Slow-fast-slow
96
The diathesis-stress model is one of many perspectives explaining psychopathology. Which of the following is true of this model? a. External stressors are solely responsibe for a person developing a disorder b. The vulnerability and the stressor involed is often negatively correlated c. Diathesis just refers to genetic vulnerability d. A singly genetic variation is likely responsible for most disorders
b. The vulnerability and the stressor involed is often negatively correlated
97
The goal of this analysis is to look at ABCs of assessment and to identify as many factors as possible which are contributing to problem behavior: a. Functional analysis b. Cogntive analysis c. Therapeutic analysis d. Family analysis
a. Functional analysis
98
The patent uniformity myth informs us that: a. all people have shared traits b. we tend to ignore the patient's perspective c. treatments are case-to-case basis d. we assume that a sample is very different from the population
c. treatments are case-to-case basis
99
Identifying and treating personality disorders are often difficult because a. peple experience these disorders as not part of their ego ideal b. patients often seel help for other related disturbances c. these disorder are permanent and continuously disabling d. None of the above
b. patients often seel help for other related disturbances
100
A multipatch model of psychopathology has the following major dimensions except? a. Biological b. Social c. Psychological d. Environmental
d. Environmental