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Body Flashcards

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0
Q

Mega-dueodenum, Pseudo-SMA syndrome on upper GI?

A

Scleroderma

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1
Q

Appearance of hepatic amoebic abscess?

A

Usually solitary with shaggy poorly defined wall

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2
Q

Most common site of endometriosis implants?

A

uterosacral ligament

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3
Q

What is contained in the anterior para-renal space?

A

pancreas, duodenum, ascending and descending colon

Adrenal glands are in the perirenal space

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4
Q

Causes of reversal of diastolic flow after renal transplantation?

A

renal vein thrombosis, ATN, acute rejection

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5
Q

What is the best internal control on out-of-phase and in-phase MR imaging of the adrenal gland?

A

Spleen

On PET, nodule should be compared to liver (if less than liver uptake, likely benign)

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6
Q

Causes of papillary necrosis?

A

NSAID

NSAIDS
Sickle Cell
Analgesics 
Infection
Diabetes mellitus
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7
Q

Where does the ectopic ureter in a duplicated collecting system isert?

A

IM U- inferior and medial to the lower pole ureter

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8
Q

Which grade of reflux notes the beginning of dilated calyces?

A

Grade III (Grade II- only has reflux into pelvis and calyces without dilation)

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9
Q

Psueudodiverticula of the ureter are associated with?

A

Urothelial malignancy and chronic infection

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10
Q

Which stones are not seen on radiograph?

A

Uric Acid

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11
Q

Where are the Cowper’s glands and glands of Littre?

A

Glands of Littre are along the dorsal surface of the anterior urethera- not normally visualized, if they are, consider chlamydia and gonorrhea

Cowpers- ventral, bulbomembranous urethera- normal finding

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12
Q

What are the portions of the urethera?

A

(Penile->bulbar)->UG disphragm->membranous and prostatic

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13
Q

Where is the verumontanum located?

A

Prostatic urethra where the ejcultory ducts enter

Site for prostatic utricle

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14
Q

What are the types of Uretheral injuries?

A

I- stretch
II- posterior urethra (associated with shearing injury)
III- Posterior and anterior
IV- base of bladder (associated with straddle injury)
V- anterior

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15
Q

Signal dropout in the liver on in-phase imaging?

A

Hemochromatosis

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16
Q

Appearance of Barrett’s Esophagus?

A

Mid-esophageal stricture, mucosal reticulation

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17
Q

Causes of large flat esophageal ulcers?

A

CMV and HIV

Herpes- small ulcers on normal background

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18
Q

Plummer Vinson Syndrome?

A

Esophageal web, iron deficiency anemia and glossitis

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19
Q

Which diverticulum is above the cricopharyengeous muscle?

A

Zenker’s

Killian Jamison is below

Both are pulsion- false diverticula

Traction diverticula are true diverticula

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20
Q

Epiedermolysis Bullosa, Bullosa pemphigoid appearance on esophogram?

A

Multiple webs and strictures

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21
Q

Findings in the esophagus in scleroderma?

Duodenum?

A

Dilation of the lower 2/3 with apparent shortening of esophagus

Duodenum- dilation of proximal dudenum, pseud- SMA syndrome hide-bound/stack of coins

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22
Q

How can varices be differentiated from varicoid carcinoma on esophogram?

A

Varices change with patient position

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23
Q

What is a Shatzki’s Ring?

A

Symptomatic B-ring at the Squamocolumnar junction (generally less than 13 mm)

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24
Ectopic rests on upper GI?
Smooth, umbilicated filling defect in inferior wall of gastric antrum
25
Brunner glands hyperplasia appearance on Upper GI?
Multiple nodules in duodenal bulb and proximal duodenum
26
Regular thin folds (<3mm) in small bowel with dilated small bowel?
Sclerodema - Hidebound Sprue/Celiac- reversal of Ileum and Jejunal pattern, Intussucesption and lymphoma risk
27
Regular thickened folds (> 3mm)?
Ischemia Edema Hemorrhage (HS purpura)
28
Irregular thickened folds in small bowel?
Crohns, Lympphoma, Mets, Whipples
29
Featureless, "ribbon small bowel"?
GVHD
30
Common atypical infections involving the terminal ileum?
Yersinia, TB
31
Coned cecum?
Ameobiasis, TB, yersinia, crohns
32
Types of polyps?
Adenomatous -Tubulous
33
Turcot Syndrome?
Familial polyposis + brain tumor (medulloblastoma, GBM)
34
Gardner Syndrome?
FAP + sinus osteoma of the skull, and abdominal desmoids
35
Appearance of dysplastic hepatic nodules?
Enhance, T2 DARK
36
Angiosarcomas of the liver are assocaited with exposure to ?
Thoratrast and PVC
37
What is the appearance of the central scar on FNH vs. Fibrolamellar HCC?
FHN- bright on T2 HCC- Dark on T2- calcifications
38
How does the liver enhance in acute Budd-Chiari?
Enhances centrally, caudate enhances
39
Causes of Cortical Calcification?
Cortical Necrosis,Oxalosis, Alports Glomerulonephritis, Sickle Cell COAGS
40
What are the velocity cutoffs for carotid ultrasound?
125-230 ≤125 = ≤50% stenosis >230 = >70% stenosis
41
What is a normal waveform in peripheral arteries?
Thriphasic with reversal of flow in early diastole
42
DDx large echogenic kidneys?
``` diabetic nephropathy (MC), acute glomerulonephritis, ATN, SLE, HIV, lymphoma ```
43
Cervical Incompetency?
Cervical length: normal > 3 cm, 2 cm borderline, < 2 cm incompetent Opening of internal os > -6 mm also = incompetence
44
Size of varicocele?
2 mm Right isolated varicocele in child- eval for situs inversus
45
How is diagnosis of placental chorioangioma made?
Doppler demonstration of arterial waveforms at fetal heart rate in vessels supplying tumor is diagnostic - hypoechoic placental mass
46
How should resistance in umbilical artery change over time?
Resistance should decrease (initially high resistance) Systiolic to Diastolic Ratio after 30 weeks should be >3 Increased PSV seen w/fetal anemia PSV (cm/s) ~ 2 x GA (w) = moderate to severe anemia
47
Velamentous cord insertion?
inserts on membrane rather than placenta
48
Cowden Syndrome?
Lhermitte-Duclos, breast fibrocystic change and fibroadenoams, thyroid follicular cancer, skin changes, glycogen acanthosis of esophagus
49
Left paraduodenal hernia is through______ and right paraduodenal hernia is through________?
Fossa of Landzert - left Waldeyer - right
50
Obturator hernias are bound by?
Pectinus muscle and obturator externus
51
Spegalian hernia?
between rectus abdominus and semilunar line Richter hernia- only contains one wall of bowel
52
Horseshoe kidney is associated with what malignanacies?
TCC and wilms
53
Most important prognostic factor is vulvar cancer?
Nodal disease
54
How long is Bosniak 2F followed?
at least 5 years
55
Bilateral adrenal calcification?
``` -Post-hemorrhagic – Post-infectious (TB, histoplasmosis) – Treated mets – Wolman disease ```
56
Absolute washout?
(Enhanced-delayed)/(enhanced- no contrast) x 100 Adenoma > 60% washout
57
Relative washout
(enhanced- dealyed)/enhanced x 100 >40% washout for adenoma
58
UG diaphragm is contained in the?
membranous urethera
59
Drug-induced cause of medullary nephrocalcinosis in infant?
Lasix
60
Most common strains of HPV that cause cervical cancer?
16,18,31
61
Adenoma Malignum is associated with?
Putz-Jager Syndrome
62
Urethroperineal fistula (“watering can perineum”) Causes?
Causes: TB, schistosomiasis, gonococcus, Crohn
63
Uretheral diverticulum at increased risk of _________?
Adenocarcinoma
64
Penile Cavenosagram ?
-Peak < 25 cm/s is arterial insufficiency, > 35 is normal – At peak arterial flow, waveform should have absent or reversed diastolic flow – In venous insufficiency, there is continued forward diastolic flow even at peak arterial flow, > 5- 10 cm/s
65
Malignancy associated with endometriomas?
Clear cell endometrial carcinoma
66
chorioadenoma destruens?
invasive mole; locally invasive but not metastatic
67
XGP characterized by_____?
lipid laden macrophages Proteus infection
68
Infection in patient with IUD?
Actinomyces
69
What is associated with high Gleason scores on prostate MR?
Low ADC values
70
What stage cervical cancer is treated with chemotherapy and radiation vs. Surgery?
IIB (parametrial invasion) and higher are treated with chemotherapy and radiation
71
Parameters for viable embryo?
1.   Crown rump length ≥7 mm and no fetal cardiac activity 2.   Mean sac diameter ≥25 mm and no fetal pole 3.   No embryo with cardiac activity ≥2 weeks after a scan showing a gestational sac but no yolk sac 4.   No embryo with cardiac activity ≥11 days after a scan showing a gestational sac and a yolk sac
72
MEN syndromes?
``` MEN I (3 Ps) - Pituitary, Parathyroid, Pancreatic MEN IIa (1M,2Ps) - Medullary Thyroid Ca, Pheochromocytoma, Parathyroid MEN IIb (2Ms,1P) - Medullary Thyroid Ca, Marfanoid habitus/mucosal neuroma, Pheochromocytoma ```
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