Pediatrics Flashcards

(61 cards)

0
Q

What is pleuropulmonary blastoma associated with?

A

multilocular cystic nephroma (10%)

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1
Q

UAC positiong?

A

High- T8-10

Low L3-5

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2
Q

Typical presentation fro congenital lobar emphysema?

A

Airspace opacity that typically resolves and then the same area of lung gets more lucent with likely mass effect

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3
Q

What is the only ring that goes between the trachea and esophagus?

A

pulmonary sling

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4
Q

Most common type of esophageal atresia?

A

N- type, proximal esophageal atresia with distal anastamosis between distal esophagus and trachea

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5
Q

UVC positioning?

A

goes from umbilical to portal to ductus venosus to the IVC

Should be between IVC and right atrium

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6
Q

Asymmetric subglottic narrowing?

A

hemangioma

Croup is symmetric

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7
Q

What is the PHACES syndrome?

A
Posterior fossa brain malformation
Hemangiomas
Arterial anomalites
Coarctation of aorta
Eye abnormalitites
Subglottic hemangiomas
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8
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia, Bochdalek hernia?

A

Bochdalek are in the Back

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9
Q

Which sequestration is more common in children?

A

Extralobar (has its own pleura)

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10
Q

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is due to______ and presents after ______ weeks?

A

chronic ventilation, increased PEEP

4 weeks

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11
Q

What is associated with a mirror right aortic arch?

A

larger percentage of truncus patient’s have an mirror right aortic arch than TOF

but 90% of mirror right aortic arch patient’s have TOF

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12
Q

Kartageners?

A

Sinus disease, situs inversus, and primary ciliary dyskinesia

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13
Q

Which cardiac rings have posterior impressions on the esophagus?

A

Right arch with aberrant left subclavian

Left arch with aberrant right subclavian

Double aortic arch (will have bilateral lateral indentions as well)

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14
Q

Most common infectious agent in newborn with pneumonia?

A

Beta-hemolytic strep

Frequently has low lung volumes, granular opacites, and pleural effusion

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15
Q

Heterogenous enhancing solid mass invading the chest wall in pediatric population?

A

Askin Tumor-primitive neuroectodermal tumor of the chest wall

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16
Q

Types of truncus deformities?

A

Type I- main trunk produces aorta and MPA
Type II- the right and left PA have a common takeoff at the main trunk but there is no MPA
Type III- Right and left PA arise separately from posterior aspect of the ascending aorta
Type IV- Collateral vessels from the aorta form pulmonary circulation

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17
Q

SMA to the right of the SMV?

A

Malrotation

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18
Q

What are the two types of gastric volvulus?

A

Organoaxial - rotate around long axis, common in paraesophageal hernia

Mesenteroaxial- rotate around short axis

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19
Q

Windsock deformity?

A

duodenal web

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20
Q

Meckel’s Diverticulum arises from the?

A

omphalomesenteric duct

can have gastric or pancreatic tissue

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21
Q

Polysplenia is associated with more or fewer cardiac malformations than asplenia?

A

Fewer, polyspelnia has fewer cardiac malformations

Polysplenia- duplication of left side and vice versa

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22
Q

What is associated with hemangioendothelioma?

A

High output cardiac failure

Kasabach- Merritt Syndrome- destruction of platelets

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23
Q

What is heaptoblastoma associated with?

A

Beckwith-Weidemann
Wilms

Can have multiple masses with venous invasion, can have calcifications

AFP is elevated (can also have precocious puberty from making B-HCG)

DDX: mesenchymal hamartoma- AFP is negative, calcs are uncommon, and predominately cystic

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24
What is the central dot sign?
Caroli's- portal vein surrounded by dilated bile ducts
25
What is the most common choledochal cyst?
Type I- focal dilation of the CBD
26
Alagille syndrome?
Cholestasis from paucity of intrahepatic bile ducts and can also have TOF
27
What is a Fontan Procedure?
Connection between the IVC and PA
28
What is a Glenn Procedure?
Connection between SVC and PA- generally first stage of Fontan
29
What is a Blalock-Taussig Shunt?
A shunt between the carotid or subclavian and the pulmonary artery
30
What procedure is used to correct D-Transposition?
Jatene/Arterial switch (reimplants coronary arteries)
31
What impression does a pulmonary sling make on the esophagus?
Anterior- left pulmonary artery runs between the trachea and esophagus Pulmonary sling is associated with complete tracheal rings and tracheal stenosis
32
Types of PAPVR?
Supra-Cardiac- Azygos, Vertical vein Cardiac- drain into right atrium or coronary sinus Infra-cardiac- Portal or IVC
33
A left SVC drains into (>90%)?
Coronary sinus
34
What are causes of periostitis?
Caffey disease, neonatal infections- syphilis, rubella/TORCH, prostoglandin therapy, NAT
35
What alpha angle is considered abnormal in Developmental Dysplasia of the hip?
50 degrees, (50-60 is borderline) Ultrashound used for evaluation of DDH until 6 months
36
What line is used for grading of imperforate anus?
Puborectalis (above this line is associated with more severe defects)
37
Craniocleido dysostosis involves?
Absent clavicles, Wormian bones, and widening of the pubic symphysis
38
What are the dwarf types?
Rhizoelic- proximal shortening -femurs/humerus-Achondroplasia, Thanathrophoric Mesomelic- Middle-foreleg/forearm Acromelic- Distal - Hand and Feet - Jejune (long narrow chest and handle bar clavicles)
39
Causes of platyspondaly?
Achondroplasia and muccopolysaccarhoidoses
40
Lucent metaphyseal bands?
Rickets, syphillis, leukemia
41
Dense metphyseal bands?
lead/heavy metal poisoning, treated leukemia, stress bands, scurvy (vitamin C deficiency)
42
Sarcral Lipomas are associated with?
Tethered cord
43
What are the different organ system findings in tuberous sclerosis?
Brain- Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytomas, cortical tubers, subependymal nodules Heart- Rhabdomyoma Chest- LAM Kidney- AML> RCC Eyes- hamartomas, colobomas
44
Organ system findings in VHL?
Head/Spine- Hemangioblatoma, endolymphatic sac tumors Adrenal- pheochormocytoma Eye- angiomas/retinal hemorrhage Pancreas- cysts, islet cell tumors Kidneys- RCC Epididymis/Broad ligament- papillary cystadenomas
45
NF1 findings?
Optic gliomas, Astrocytomas UBO- unidentified bright object Sphenoid wing dysplasia Lateral spinal meningocele Plexiform neurofibromas
46
Meckel-Gruber?
Polydactaly Encephalocele Cystic renal dysplasia
47
What is the best predictor of gestational age in first trimester?
crown rump length
48
Most common location for tubal ectopic pregnancy?
Ampulla
49
What karyotype is a partial and complete mole?
Partial- XXX or XXY- 69 chromosomes - Makes fetal tissue Complete - All parental tissue, no fetal 46 XX- markedly elevated beta-HCG
50
Normal amniotic fluid index? Marker of polyhydramnios?
normal- 7-25 poly- one pocket of 8 or more
51
Choroid plexus cysts are commonly associated with?
Trisomy 18 Strawberry head, rocker-bottom feet
52
Ebstein's anomaly is associated with?
Maternal lithium
53
What is abnormal size of renal pelvis?
10 mm >4 2nd trimester > 7 3rd trimester
54
Imaging characteristics of hepatoblastoma?
- Do not enhance as much as liver, T2 bright - Well defined - 50% calcify - Elevated AFP
55
Mesenchymal hamartoma appearence?
Predominately cystic with septations
56
Currarino triad?
– Anorectal malformation (anal stenosis, imperforate anus) – Sacral deformity (sickle or scimitar hemisacrum) – Presacral mass (teratoma, lipoma, dermoid cyst, enteric cyst, anterior meningocele)
57
First step to repair TOF?
Blalock-Taussig shunt (SCA to ipsilateral PA on side opposite arch) done first
58
Differential diagnosis for brain parenchyma calcifications?
CMV- periventricular HIV - diffuse Tuberus Sclerosis- subependymal
59
Risk factors associated with meconium plug syndrome?
Diabetic mother, magnesium sulfate
60
Which pediatric renal tumor is associated with bone mets?
Clear cell