0
Q
What is the first joint to show to show degenerative changes in the SLAC wrist?
A
Radioscaphoid
1
Q
What is the most common location of a labrel acetabular tear?
A
anterior-superior
2
Q
Findings in scapholunate dissociation?
A
Scapholunate ligament is disrupted - >3 mm of widening = terry thomas sign
3
Q
Perilunate dislocation is most commonly associated with?
A
Scaphoid fractures
The capitate will migrate dorsally but lunate will remain in position
4
Q
Midcarpal dislocation is associated with?
A
Triquetrolunate interosseous ligament disruption or triquetral fracture
the capitate migrates dorsally and the lunate is displaced volar
5
Q
Lunate Dislocation is associated with?
A
Dorsal radiolunate ligament injury
Lunate is displaced toward the volar aspect
6
Q
DISI
A
Cup of lunate faces dorsum of hand, Scapholunate angle is >60 degrees
Radial side ligamentous injury
7
Q
VISI
A
Cup of lunate faces volar surface, Scapholunate angle < 30 degrees
Ulnar side ligamentous injury
8
Q
What causes the dorsolateral dislocation of the Bennett Fracture?
A
Abductor Pollicis Longus
Rolando and Bennett are fractures of the first meta carpal (rolando is comminuted)
9
Q
Avulsion of ___________ causes a gamekeeper’s thumb injury?
A
Ulnar collateral ligament
10
Q
What is a stener lesion?
A
adductor tendon is caught under the ulnar collateral ligament, requires surgery, won’t heal
11
Q
Causes of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
A
Trauma, pregnancy, dialysis
12
Q
What does the ulnar nerve pass through?
A
Gunyon’s Canal- formed by the pisiform and hamate
13
Q
Most common elbow fracture in pediatrics?
A
Supracondylar
Radial head is most common in adults
14
Q
What fracture is associated with a posterior elbow dislocation?
A
Capitellum
15
Q
Essex-Lopresti?
A
Fracture of radial head with anterior dislocation of the DRUJ
16
Q
Impingement on the ulnar nerve by an accessory muscle?
A
Anconeus Epitrochleris
Ulnar nerve runs in the cubital tunnel, retinaculum is known as eipcondylo-olecranon ligament or osbornes band
17
Q
Best view for evaluation of a Hill-Sacks?
A
Internal rotation
18
Q
Inferior dislocation (luxation erecta humeri) can result in?
A
axillary nerve injury
19
Q
Lateral femoral neck fracture is associated with?
A
Bisphosphonates
20
Q
Corona Mortis ?
A
anastamosis of inferior epigastric and obturator
21
Q
What corresponds with the risk of AVN in femur fractures?
A
Degree of displacement
circumflex femoral
22
Q
Iliac crest avulsion?
A
Abdominal muscles
23
Q
Anterior inferior iliac spine avulsion?
A
rectus femoris
24
Greater trochantor avulsion?
Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
25
Lesser Trochanter avulsion?
Illiopsoas
26
Ischial tuberosity avulsion?
hamstrings
27
Pubic symphysis avulsion?
Adductor muscles
28
Snapping Hip Syndrome Types?
External- Iliotibial band over greater trochanter
Internal- Illiopsoas over illiopectineal eminence or femoral head
Intra-articular- loose body in the joint/labral tear
29
What is the cross-over sign?
sign of pincer type femoroactabular impingement - anterior and posterior rims of acetabulum cross over each other making a figure 8
30
Segond fracture (lateral tibial plateau) is assocatied with?
ACL injury
Reverse Segond (medial tibial plateau) is associated with PCL injury
31
Arcuate Sign?
Avulsion of proximal fibula, associated with PCL injury
32
Deep intracondylar notch sign A/W?
ACL tear
33
Common assocaited wiht patellar tendon tear (patella alta)?
Lupus/SLE
bilateral patellar tendon tear- chronic steroids
34
Most common type of tibial plateau fracture?
Type II, lateral plateau is most commonly injured
35
Tillaux fracture is SH Type______?
3- through the anterolateral tibial epiphysis
36
Triplane fracture?
SH Type 4
37
Do maisonneuve fractures extend into the hindfoot?
NO
38
What is the next step in evaluating a patient with bilateral calcaneal fractures?
Evaluate spine for burst fracture
39
What Bohler's angle is concerning for a fracture?
.
40
Avulsion fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal?
Peroneus brevis
41
Most common dislocation of the foot?
Lis Franc- medial cuneiform to 2nd metatarsal head
All metatarsals can go lateral or the first and second can diverge if injured
Can't exclude on non-weight bearing films
42
SONK (spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee) is actually?
insufficiency fracture- most common in medial condyle, assocaited with meniscal injury
43
Looser zones are associated with?
Osteomalacia and riskets
Lucent bands perpendicular to the cortex
Insufficiency fracture
44
T- score values?
T >1.0 is normal
T -1.0- -2.5 = osteopenia
T- >-2.5 = osteoporosis
45
Transient osteoporosis of the hip findings ?
Osteopenia on XRAY
Edema on MRI
Increased uptake, at risk for fracture
3rd trimester of pregnancy and men
46
Staging of Osteochondritis Dissecans/Osteochondral lesions?
Stage 1: stable, covered by intact cartilage
Stage 2: Stable on probing, partially not intact with host bone
Stage 3: Unstable, complete discontinuity with bone
Stage 4L dislocated fragment
Look for T2 signal undercutting fragment to call unstable
47
Kohler's?
Navicular, Male 4-6 (treatment is not surgical)
48
Freiberg?
Second metatarsal head
49
Severs
Calcaneal apophysis
50
Panners?
Capitellum, "thrower"
51
Perthes
Femoral head
52
Keinbock
Lunate, associated with negative ulnar variance
53
De Quervain's involves?
Abductor Pollicus Longus and Extensor Pollicus Breveis (first extensor compartment, thumb
54
Which extensor compartment can demonstrate early tenosynovitis in RA?
Sixth- extensor carpi ulnaris
Can also see RA in multiple flexors
55
What defines the carpal tunnel?
Deep the the palmaris longus tendon
pisiform, hook of hamate, scaphoid, trapezium tubercle
Contents are wrapped in the transverse carpal ligament fibrous sheath
56
What does the carpal tunnel contain
4 flexor profundus, 4 flexor superficialis, 1 flexor pollicus longus, and 1 median nerve
57
Which synovial spaces in the wrist communicate?
pisiform recess and radiocarpal joint
58
Should the glenohumoral joint and subarcromial bursa communicate?
NO, suggests a full thickness rotator cuff tear
59
Do the ankle joint and Lateral peroneal tendon sheath communicate?
NO, suggests calcaneofibular ligament tear
60
What is intersection syndrome?
First extensor compartment crosses the seconda-> extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus tenosynovitis
61
Lucency in distal phalanx that corresponds to enhancing T2 bright mass on MR?
Glomus tumor
62
Giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath?
Like PVNS, T1, T2 dark
bloom on gradient
DDX: tendon sheath fibroma- will not bloom
63
Elbow- Where does the ulnar collateral ligament insert?
Sublime tubercle
Anterior Bundle of UCL is most important
Typically in throwers
64
Panner vs. Osteochondirits dessicans?
Both involve the Capitellum
Panner- younger children, OD- teenare
No loose bodies in panner
65
Epitrochlear Lymphadenopathy
Cat Scratch
66
Rotator cuff- Subacromial impingement most commonly affects?
Supraspinatus tendon
67
Subcoracoid Impingement affects?
Subscapularis
68
Posterior superior Internal Impingement (from overhead throwing)?
Damages the infraspinatus
69
Most common rotator cuff tear affects?
Supraspinatus
partial tear is
70
SLAP tear?
Tear of the superior labrum (anterior to posterior), adjacent to the biceps tendon, no istability
Detachment of the labrum and biceps from glenoid gets surgery (type II)
Extension into the biceps muscle is Type IV
71
What is the bankhart lesion spectrum?
least to most:
GLAD->Perthes ->ALPSA -> true bankhart
72
GLAD?
anterior inferior labral tear with assocaited cartilage damage, no instability
73
Perthes?
detachment of anteroinferior labrum but intact periosteum
74
ALPSA?
anterior labral periosteal sleeve avulsion, absence of labrum on glenoid rim- intact periosteum
The labrum is displaced medially along the glenoid
75
True bankhart?
periosteum is disrupted
76
HAGL?
Avulsion of the inferior glenohumoral ligament, "J" sign on coronal MR
associated with anterior dislocation
77
A cyst in the suprascapular notch affects?
Supraspinatus and infraspinatus
78
Cyst in the spinoglenoid notch will effect?
infraspinatus
79
What makes the quadrilateral space?
teres minor (above), teres major (below), humoral neck, triceps
80
What is impinged in quadrilateral space syndrome?
Axillary nerve- teres minor atrophy
81
Parsonage Turner?
Painful Inflammation of muscles- brachial plexus neuropathy
82
Medial dislocation of the long head of the biceps is associated with?
Subscapularis tendon tear
83
Buford complex?
Thickened middle glenohumoral ligament
Congenitally absent anterior/superior labrum
84
Which aspect of the meniscus is most likely to heal after tear?
peripheral- increased blood supply
85
Which meniscus looks like a true "C" with equal width anteriorly and posteriorly?
Lateral
The medial is thinner anteriorly
86
What are the two meniscofemoral ligaments?
Humphrey and Wrisberg
Humphrey is anterior "alphabetical"
87
Conjoint tendon is made of?
biceps femoris and LCL (lateral collateral ligament)
88
Which is the first part of the MCL to tear?
capsular ligament - results in meniscal capsular separation
89
Which discoid meniscus is the most prone to injury?
Wrisberg Variant
90
Double PCL sign in bucket handle tear proves?
ACL is intact
91
What are signs of ACL injury?
Segond fracutre
Kissing contusion- lateral femoral condyle impacts the posterior lateral tibial plateau
92
O'Donoghue's Unhappy Triad?
ACL tear, MCL tear, medial meniscus
93
Celery Stick ACL?
mucoid degeneration
94
ACL repair- what is the primary factor in preventing impingement?
positioning of the tibial tunnel (can't be too far anterior)
95
What determines isometry of ACL repair? (constant length and tension)
Femoral tunnel of the graft
96
What is complication of ACL repair in a patient presenting with inability to fully extend the knee?
Arthrofibrosis- cyclops lesion
97
When is ACL graft most susceptible to tear?
During remodeling 4-8 months
98
What is typically torn in patellar dislocation?
MPFL- medial patellar femoral ligament
99
What tendons are in the medial ankle?
Posterior Tibial
Flexor digitorum
Flexor Hallicus
100
What tendons are in the lateral ankle?
Peroneus Longus
Peroneus Brevis
101
What is the master know of henry?
Where dick crosses harry in the medial ankle "harry dick"- felxor digitorum crosses flexor hallicus
102
What is the most commonly injured ligament during inversion?
anterior talofibular ligament
103
Most common cause of a flat foot/pes planus?
Posterior tibial injury (chronic- behind medial malleolus or acute- navicular)
secondary supporter of the arch- spring ligament, will have hindfoot valgus
104
Split peroneus brevis tear is associated with?
lateral ligament injury
105
"Meniscoid" mass in the lateral gutter of the ankle?
Anterolateral impingement syndrome-> scar tissue production
106
Sinus tarsi syndrome?
obliteration of fat and replacement with scar (space between lateral talus and calcaneous)
107
Pain in the distribution of the first 3 toes?
Tibial nerve - tarsal tunnel syndrome
108
In Achilles' tendon rupture the ability to plantar flex is lost unless?
The plantaris is intact
109
Plantar fascitis presentation?
Pain worse in morning, increased with dorsi-flexion
Fascia >4mm
110
Most common site of a morton's neuroma?
3-4th metatarsals
perineural fibrosis from compression/entrapment of the plantar digital nerve
111
Osteomyelitis in spine with gibbus deformity?
TB
112
Ghost sign in neuropathic patient?
bone with poor definition and margins on T1 but becomes better defined after contrast administration, more likely to be osteomyelitis
113
What metastsis is a frequent cause of occult pnumothorax?
Osteosarcoma
114
Which is more developed or dense centrally osteosarcoma or myositis ossificans?
osteosarcoma
115
Where is the most common location for a parosteal osteosarcoma?
Distal posterior femoral metaphysis
BULKY
116
What looks like a chondroblastoma but in an adult?
clear cell chondrosarcoma
117
Most common location of a chordoma?
sacrum, next is clivus
118
Most common soft tissue sarcoma in adults?
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
bone infarcts can degenerate into MFH
119
Painful soft tissue mass with soft tissue calcifications and bone erosion?
Synovial sarcoma
- Don't involve joint
- Have translocation of X-18
120
Epiphyseal equivalents?
carpals, patella, greater trochanter, calcaneous
121
Epipyseal lesions?
GCT, chondroblastoma, Infection
122
McCune Albright?
Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
Cafe-au-lait spots
Precocious puberty
123
Mazabraud?
Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
Myxomas
Increased risk of malignant transformation
124
Ollier's?
Multiple enchondromas
125
Marfucci's?
Hemangiomas and enchondromas (increased malignant potential)
126
EG findings?
vertebrae plana
Floating tooth
Skull with beveled edge lucent lesions
127
Differential diagnosis for vertebrae plana?
lymphoma
EG
Mets, myeloma
128
Key features of a Giant cell tumor?
physes must be closed
non-sclerotic border
extends to articualr surface
129
Jaffe- Campanacci Syndrome?
Multiple non-ossifying fibromas, cafe-au-lait spots, mental retardation, hypogonadism, cardiac malformation
130
Painful scoliosis?
osteoid osteoma/osteoblastoma
131
Mini-brain in vertebral body?
Plasmacytoma
132
POEMS?
myeloma with sclerotic mets- neuropathy, organomegaly
133
Fallen fragment sign?
unicamral bone cyst
134
Which benign lesions have marked edema?
osteoid osteoma and chondroblastoma
135
Chondromyxoid Fibroma?
lucent, eccentric, elongated lesion "bite"- like
136
Common Calcaneal lesions?
unicamral bone cyst- fallen fragment
intraosseous lipoma-fat density or central bone fragment
Others- ABC, GCT, chondroblastoma
137
Most common location fro liposclerosing myxofibroma?
intratrochanteric region- sclerotic margin
138
Cartilage cap that is concerning for malignant degeneration of osteochondroma?
2 cm or greater
- point away from joint
- Medullary continuity
139
Trevor Disease
osteochondromas developing in joint- marked deformity
140
Supracondylar spur
Points toward the joint
Can compress median nerve with the ligament of struthers
141
Periosteal Chondroma?
Looks like lucent plate extensing from periosteum (surroundign sclerosis)
142
Osteofibrous Dysplasia?
Looks like NOF in anterior tibial with tibial bowing
-Typically in children
143
Anterior lateral tibial bowing?
NF1
144
Felty Syndrome?
RA + splenomegaly + neutropenia
145
Caplan Syndrome?
RA, +pneumoconiosis
146
Asymmetric eosive changes with bony proliferation and NO osteopenia?
Psoriasis
147
Lung disease in ankylosing spndylitis?
upper lobe predominant
148
Where is erosions occur in sacroilitis?
iliac side first- thinner hyaline cartilage
149
Symmetric SI joint involvement?
IBD, ankylosing spondylitis
Asymmetric- reactive arthritis, psoriatic
150
Gout mimickers?
Amyloid, Cystic RA, reticular histiocytosis, sarcoid, hyperlipidemia
151
What resembles CPPD? Hooked osteophytes, chondrocalcinosis
Hemochromatosis
152
Milwaukee Shoulder?
Intraarticualr destruction due to hydroxyapetite deposition
153
Spine:
Shiny corners?
Bridging lateral osetophyte?
SC- ankylosing spon.
Bridging Osteophyte- Psoriatic
154
Appearance of SLE in hands?
reducible joint deformities
rarely have joint space narrowing or erosions
155
DISH involves at least ______ levels?
4
156
Findings of JIA?
Osteopenia, ankylosis
knee- widening of the intracondylar notch (similar to hemophilia)
157
Osteopoikilosis transmission is?
Autosomal dominant
158
Primary synovial osteochondromatosis is considered a ______ process?
metaplastic/neoplastic
159
Engelmann's Disease?
progressive diaphyseal dysplasia
favors long bones
hot on bone scan
can cause optic nerve compression in skull
160
Most common site of diabetic myonecrosis?
thigh (marked edema and enahancment)
161
Stages of osteonecrosis/ avascular necrosis ?
```
0- normal
1- edema on MR, XRAY= normal
2- Mixed lytic and sclerotic
3- crescent sign, articular collapse
4 - OA
```
162
Thalassemia
Hair on end skull
will obliterate sinuses
rodent faces
expanded ribs
163
Most common complication of pagets?
deafness
can form osteosarcomas or giant cell tumors
164
Anisotropy in tendons?
Tendon can appear hypoechoic when not perpendicular to sound beam
Greatest culprits- supraspinatus and long head of biceps
165
Arthrogram Injection for hip and shoulder aim for?
hip- superior femoral head and neck junction
Shoulder- middle third and inferior third of the humoral head 2 mm inside cortex
166
Although benign, what tumors can produce metastases?
Chordoma and Giant cell tumor
167
What are 2 lesions associated with melorheostosis in the axial skeleton?
AVMs and fibrolipomatous lesions
168
What is Trevor's Disease?
Osteochondromas in the epiphysis
169
What is a capitellar fracture associated with?
Ulnar collateral ligament rupture
170
What is the most common coalition in the hand?
lunotriquetral
171
Bridging ossification in Fibrousdysplasia Ossificans progressiva first occurs in the?
Sternocleidomastoid muscles
172
Findings in developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Coxa Magna (large flattened femoral head and neck)
Up-turning of acetabular roof and retroversion of the acetabulum
173
What is associated with a solitary fibrous tumor/hemangiopericytoma?
hypoglycemia
174
What prevents proximal retraction of the biceps tendon even with complete disruption of the tendon?
lacertus fibrosis
175
What extensors are in compartment 1?
abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
176
What extensors are in compartment II?
extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis
177
Extensor in compartment III?
Extensor pollicis longus
178
Compartment IV extensor tendons?
Extensor digitorum and extensor indicies
179
Compartment V extensor?
extensor digiti minimi
180
Compartment VI extensors?
extensor carpi ulnaris
181
What does listers tubercle seperate?
Compartment II and III
182
Most common site of Achilles' tendon tear?
mid-substance
183
Movement of the fracture fragment in a Bennett fractures is due to the unopposed action of?
abductor pollicis
184
Grades I-III AC joint injury?
I- sprain of AC ligament
II- complete disruption of AC ligament
III- Complete disruption of coracoclavicular ligament
185
The arcuate sign (fibular head avulsion) is assocaited with?
postero-lateral corner injury
186
Stress fracture grades?
```
0- normal
I- periosteal edema
II-periosteal and marrow edema on T2
III- periosteal and marrow edema on T1 and T2
IV- visible stress fracture
```
187
Volar plate injury appearence?
results from hyperextension, with injury along the palmar PIP joints
can see avulsion fracture at base of MCP
188
Injury to what nerve at what location results in foot drop?
peroneal- fibular head
189
Pellagrini-Steida injury is associated with?
MCL injury
190
Essex-Lopresti?
radial head fracture with dislocation at DRUJ
Galleazi- involves radial shaft
191
Reverse segund fracture is associated with?
PCL and medial meniscus injury
192
What muscle is classically spared in eupinator/posterior intraosseous nerve syndrome?
extensor carpi radialis longus
193
Sever disease?
osteochondrosis involving the immature calcaneal apophysis
194
When is a heel pad thickened and concerning for acromegaly?
2.3 cm
195
Soft tissue calcifications in renal Osteodystrophy are composed of?
calcium hydroxyapetite deposition
196
Which portion of bone marrow converts to yellow marrow last?
metaphysis
197
What do joint space findings in CPPD look like, typically?
Large subchondral cysts and hooked osteophytes
198
What could be the only differentiating factor for hemochormatosis and CPPD?
osteopenia/osteoporosis can be seen in Hemochormatosis but not CPPD
199
Most location of meniscal ossicle?
posterior horn of medial meniscus
200
What position should arm be in form imaging the biceps tendon on MRI?
FABS
Flexed, abducted, and supinated
201
Most common nerve injured in posterior hip dislocation?
What changes clinical management of posterior hip dislocation?
sciatic nerve injury
Fragments in hip joint- surgery
202
Where does subperiosteal resorption first occur in renal osteodystrophy?
Radial side of the 2nd and 3rd middle phalanx
203
Causes of distal clavicle resorption?
RA, hyperparathyroidism, trauma (osteolysis), cleidocranial dysplasia, mets/myeloma
204
Most common location for involvement of reactive arthritis in extremities?
retrocalcaneal bursitis or calcaneal erosion
psoriasis favors hands, reactive- feet
205
Double PCL sign?
Medial meniscus
Lateral meniscus forms double delta- anterior horn sign
206
Vertebra plana?
```
-Fracture
– EG
– Tumor (leukemia,
lymphoma, neuroblastoma,
mets/myeloma)
– Infection (TB)
– Steroids
– Hemangioma
```
207
Patellar Tendinopathy/Jumper's Knee does not affect?
Anterior fibers of the patella
208
Which hip fractures have the highest risk of AVN and non-union?
Subcapital
209
Most common site of Achilles' tendon tear?
Watershed vascular area, approximately 2-6 cm above calcaneous
210
What is a chopart fracture/dislocation?
Involves the hindfoot-midfoot joint
211
How does melorheostosis progress?
Progresses from an end of the bone to the center
212
Erlenmeyer flask deformity
• DDx: hemoglobinopathy (sickle cell, thalassemia), Gaucher, Niemann-Pick, osteopetrosis, fibrous dysplasia
213
Epiphyseal equivalents?
patella, calcaneus, carpal/tarsal bones, apophyses (greater and lesser
trochanters of femur, tuberosities of humerus)
214
Lesser trochanter avulsion in adults?
Consider metstasis
Children-iliopsoas avulsion
215
Hemochormatosis is like-
CPPD
216
Camurati-Engelmann disease?
Diaphyseal dysplasia - smooth cortical thickening with obliteration of medullary cavity
217
Jefferson fracture?
-Burst fx of C1
-Unstable, as transverse atlantal ligament may be
disrupted
218
Knee findings in hemophilia?
– Epiphyseal overgrowth, due to chronic hyperemia
| – Knees: elongation or squaring of patella, widening of intercondylar notch
219
Vertebral disc calcifications?
Onchronosis
220
Congenital Syphilis Bone Findings?
-Diffuse periostitis
– Symmetric destruction of medial proximal tibial
metaphyses (Wimberger sign)
– Lucent metaphyseal bands
221
Diffusely increased bone sclerosis?
```
– Renal osteodystrophy
– Sickle cell disease
– Myelofibrosis
– Osteopetrosis
– Pyknodysostosis
– Mets
– Mastocytosis
– Paget disease
– Athletes
– Fluorosis
```
222
DDx marrow depletion (fat signal on MR)?
aplastic anemia, post radiation, some chemotherapy regimens
223
DDx marrow infiltration (low T 1 on MR)?
polycythemia vera, hemochromatosis, amyloidosis, Gaucher,
| lymphoma, myelofibrosis, myeloma, mets
224
How are parosteal osteosarcomas treated?
Tx: wide, en bloc excision; chemotherapy generally not
necessary
– Once it violates cortex of adjacent bone, treated as
conventional osteosarcoma
225
Imaging appearance of Periosteal osteosarcoma?
Soft tissue mass with ray like periosteal reaction, scallops or cups adjacent cortex
typically diaphyseal
226
Congenital rubella?
Celery stalk appearance of metaphysis
227
Most common ligament injured in patellar displocation?
Medial petellofemoral ligament
MPFL extends from adductor tubercle to medial superior
pole of patella
228
Causes of short 4th metacarpal?
Turner syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, pseudohypoparathyroidism,
pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism
229
What can have a boney Sequestrum besides osteomyelitis?
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
230
Madelung deformity is associated with?
Hurler's, Turner's
231
Little Leaguer's Elbow results from ?
Valgus compression on the capitellum
232
What are the normal shoulder labral variants?
Sublabral recess-11-1 o'clock, follows curve of glenoid
Sublabral foramen- 1-3 O'clock, follows glenoid, smooth
Buford Complex- Congenital labral variant (absent in the 1-3 O'Clock position with hypertrophy of middle glenohumoral ligament)
233
What are the two primary classification of Labral tears?
SLAP- superior labral anterior to posterior, typically involves the insertion of the biceps
Bankhart lesions- anterior inferior labrum, typically related to dislocation (3-6 O'Clock). Only exception is reverse bankhart
234
Vanishing bone disease?
Gorham-Stoud
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