FINAL 01 - Antibacterials Flashcards

(266 cards)

1
Q

Staphylococcus (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Streptococcus (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bacillus (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clostridium (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Listeria (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lactobacillus (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Actinomyces (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mycobacterium (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Klebsiella (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Escherichia coli (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Enterobacter (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Proteus (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Serratia (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Color on gram stain - purple (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Color on gram stain - pink/red (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cell wall - thick peptidoglycan (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cell wall - thin peptidoglycan + outer membrane (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) - absent (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) - present (endotoxin) (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Teichoic acid - present (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Teichoic acid - absent (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Susceptible to penicillin - more likely (G+ or G-)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Susceptible to penicillin - less likely, due to outer membrane (G+ or G-)

A

G-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Skin infections (Likely gram type)

A

G+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Staph aureus and Strep pyogenes are common causes of __________
Skin infections
26
UTI (Likely gram type)
G-
27
E. coli, proteus, and klebsiella are common causes of _________
UTI
28
Pneumonia (Likely gram type)
Both (G+ and G-)
29
Strep pneumoniae (G+), H. influenzae, and mycoplasma (atypical) are common causes of __________
Pneumonia
30
Sepsis in hospitals (Likely gram type)
G- (more severe)
31
E. coli, klebsiella, and pseudomonas are common causes of __________
Sepsis in hospitals
32
Beta-lactams and vancomycin target the __________
Cell wall
33
Aminoglycosides, macrolides, tetracyclines, and clindamycin target __________
Protein synthesis
34
FQ, rifampicin, and metronidazole target __________
DNA/RNA synthesis
35
TMP-SMX target _________
Folate pathway
36
Daptomycin and polymyxins target __________
Membrane
37
Includes beta-lactams, such as penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams (Types of antibacterials)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitors
38
Inhibit transpeptidase (penicillin-binding proteins), blocking peptidoglycan cross-linking (Types of antibacterials)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitors
39
Uses are broad; depends on generation and type; includes skin, respiratory, UTI, intra-abdominal, and meningitis (Types of antibacterials)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitors
40
SEs include allergy, GI upset, C. difficile infection, seizures (Types of antibacterials)
Cell wall synthesis inhibitors
41
Includes penicillin, amoxicillin, flucloxacillin, piperacillin (Classes of cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Penicillins
42
Narrow to extended spectrum (Classes of cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Penicillins
43
Includes cephalexin (1st), cefuroxime (2nd), ceftriaxone (3rd), and cefepime (4th) (Classes of cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Cephalosporins
44
↑ Gram-negative coverage with ↑ generation (Classes of cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Cephalosporins
45
Includes meropenem and imipenem (Classes of cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Carbapenems
46
Broad spectrum, resistant to most beta-lactamases (Classes of cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Carbapenems
47
Includes aztreonam (Classes of cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Monobactams
48
For gram-negative only (Classes of cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Monobactams
49
Includes Pen G and Pen V (Types of penicillins)
Penicillins (Natural)
50
Used for streptococcal infections, syphilis, and rheumatic fever prophylaxis (Types of penicillins)
Penicillins (Natural)
51
Narrow spectrum; mostly gram-positive and anaerobes (Types of penicillins)
Penicillins (Natural)
52
Includes flucloxacillin, nafcillin, and dicloxacillin (Types of penicillins)
Antistaphylococcal penicillins (Penicillinase-resistant)
53
Used for MSSA infections: skin, bone, endocarditis (Types of penicillins)
Antistaphylococcal penicillins (Penicillinase-resistant)
54
Not effective against MRSA or gram-negatives (Types of penicillins)
Antistaphylococcal penicillins (Penicillinase-resistant)
55
Includes amoxicillin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, ampicillin (Types of penicillins)
Aminopenicillins (Extended-spectrum)
56
Used for otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis, UTIs, enterococcal infections, and polymicrobial infections, dog/cat bites (for amoxicillin-clavulanate) (Types of penicillins)
Aminopenicillins (Extended-spectrum)
57
A beta-lactamase inhibitor that expands gram negative and anaerobic coverage
Clavulanate
58
Also known as middle ear infection
Otitis media
59
Most common cause of otitis media; G+ diplococcus (Causes of otitis media)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
60
Non-typeable; G- (Causes of otitis media)
Haemophilus influenzae
61
G- diplococcus (Causes of otitis media)
Moraxella catarrhalis
62
2 less common causes of otitis media (SS)
Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus
63
Treatment for otitis media
Amoxicillin (high-dose)
64
Used for resistant/treatment failure in otitis media (AC)
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
65
E. coli, S. saprophyticus (in young women), K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. faecalis are the most common causes of __________
Uncomplicated UTI
66
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, enterobacter, serratia are the most common causes of __________
Complicated UTI (Catheter-associated)
67
Most common cause of enterococcal infections
Enterococcus faecalis
68
Cause of enterococcal infection; more resistant; may be VRE
Enterococcus faecium
69
__________ are naturally resistant to many beta-lactams and aminoglycosides
Enterococcal infections
70
For enterococcal infections, use __________ or _________ (AVG)
Ampicillin, Vancomycin ± gentamicin
71
For VRE, use __________ or __________ (LD)
Linezolid, Daptomycin
72
Cause of pharyngitis (bacterial/strep throat)
Streptococcus pyogenes
73
First line antibiotics for pharyngitis (PA)
Penicillin V, Amoxicillin
74
2 antibiotics to be used for pharyngitis if penicillin-allergic (CA)
Cephalexin (if mild allergy), Azithromycin (if severe allergy)
75
Includes piperacillin-tazobactam (Tazocin) (Types of penicillins)
Antipseudomonal penicillins
76
Broad-spectrum for severe hospital-acquired infections (Types of penicillins)
Antipseudomonal penicillins
77
Antipseudomonal penicillins are active against _________
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
78
Antipseudomonal penicillins are often used empirically in hospitals; __________ protects against beta-lactamases
Tazobactam
79
3 antibiotics for acute bronchitis (only if pertussis or atypical suspected) (ACD)
Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Doxycycline (alternative)
80
Most common cause of pertussis (whooping cough)
Bordetella pertussis
81
First-line antibiotic for pertussis in children
Azithromycin
82
First-line antibiotic for pertussis in adults (CT)
Clarithromycin, TMP-SMX
83
Includes cephalexin (PO), cefazolin (IV) (Generations of cephalosporins)
1st Generation
84
Used for gram positive (Staph, Strep); limited gram-negative (Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella = "PEK") (Generations of cephalosporins)
1st Generation
85
Used for skin and soft tissue infections, surgical prophylaxis (cefazolin), and UTIs (uncomplicated) (Generations of cephalosporins)
1st Generation
86
Includes cefuroxime (IV/PO), cefaclor (PO), cefoxitin and cefotetan (IV-cephamycins) (Generations of cephalosporins)
2nd Generation
87
Used more for gram-negative (H. influenzae, Enterobacter, Neisseria = "HEN"); continued gram-positive (Generations of cephalosporins)
2nd Generation
88
Used for respiratory infections (otitis media, sinusitis), PID (cefoxitin + doxycycline), surgical prophylaxis in abdominal surgery (Generations of cephalosporins)
2nd Generation
89
__________ such as cefoxitin and cefotetan have anaerobic activity (2nd generation cephalosporins)
Cephamycins
90
Includes ceftriaxone (IV), cefotaxime (IV), ceftazidime (IV), cefixime, cefdinir (PO) (Generations of cephalosporins)
3rd Generation
91
Broad gram-negative, reduced gram-positive (Generations of cephalosporins)
3rd Generation
92
Long half-life, once-daily dosing (3rd Generation Cephalosporins)
Ceftriaxone
93
Used for meningitis, gonorrhea, CAP, sepsis (3rd generation cephalosporins)
Ceftriaxone
94
Used for pediatric meningitis (3rd generation cephalosporins)
Cefotaxime
95
Used for pseudomonal infections (3rd generation cephalosporins)
Ceftazidime
96
Includes cefepime (IV) (Generations of cephalosporins)
4th Generation
97
Used for broad gram-positive and gram-negative including Pseudomonas; more resistant to beta-lactamases (Generations of cephalosporins)
4th Generation
98
Includes ceftaroline (IV) and ceftobiprole (not widely available in all countries) (Generations of cephalosporins)
5th Generation
99
Similar gram-negative to 3rd gen; MRSA coverage (binds PBP2a); no pseudomonas activity (Generations of cephalosporins)
5th Generation
100
Used for community-acquired pneumonia and MRSA skin infections (Generations of cephalosporins)
5th Generation
101
Vancomycin is administered __________ for systemic infections (Glycopeptides)
IV
102
Vancomycin is administered orally for __________ colitis (not absorbed systematically) (Glycopeptides)
Clostridioides difficile
103
Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminal of peptidoglycan precursors (Glycopeptides)
Vancomycin (IV, PO)
104
Used for gram-positive only, including MRSA, Enterococcus spp. (except VRE), Streptococcus spp., Clostridium difficile (oral) (Glycopeptides)
Vancomycin (IV, PO)
105
Vancomycin causes __________, especially with high trough levels or with aminoglycosides (Glycopeptides)
Nephrotoxicity
106
Syndrome caused by vancomycin; histamine-mediated flushing during rapid infusion (Remedy: slow the rate)
Red man syndrome
107
Similar to vancomycin, but longer half-life, once-daily dosing, less monitoring required, used as vancomycin alternative in some hospitals (Glycopeptides)
Teicoplanin (IV/IM)
108
Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Carbapenems
109
Resistant to most beta-lactamases (including ESBLs) (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Carbapenems
110
Includes meropenem (IV), imipenem-cilastatin (IV), ertepenem (IV) (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Carbapenems
111
__________ is co-administered with imipenem to prevent its renal degradation and protect against nephrotoxicity (Carbapenems)
Cilastatin
112
__________ is rapidly inactivated in the renal tubules by an enzyme called dehydropeptidase I (DHP-I) (Carbapenems)
Imipenem
113
Is very broad-spectrum, including gram-positive (Streptococci, MSSA), gram-negative (including ESBL-producing organisms), anaerobes (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Carbapenems
114
Meropenem, imipenem, and doripenem are carbapenems that has __________ activity
Pseudomonas
115
__________ is a carbapenem that has no activity vs. Pseudomonas, Acinetobacter, Enterococcus
Ertapenem
116
Most common ESBL-producer globally (ESBL-producing organisms)
Escherichia coli
117
Important cause of hospital-acquired infections (ESBL-producing organisms)
Klebsiella pneumoniae
118
Less common but possible (ESBL-producing organisms) (PES)
Proteus mirabilis, Enterobacter spp., Serratia
119
Used for severe HAI, empiric therapy for MDR organisms, meningitis (meropenem), and polymicrobial infections (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Carbapenems
120
S/Es include seizures (especially imipenem), GI upset, rash, hypersensitivity (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Carbapenems
121
Beta-lactam antibiotic but structurally different; contains a monocyclic beta-lactam ring (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Monobactams (Aztreonam)
122
Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding protein 3 (PBP-3) in gram-negative bacteria (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Monobactams (Aztreonam)
123
Is bactericidal; only active against aerobic gram-negative bacilli (E. coli, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterobacter); no activity against gram-positives or anaerobes (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Monobactams (Aztreonam)
124
Aztreonam is safe in __________
Penicillin allergy
125
Bactericidal; inhibits MurA (enolpyruvyl transferase) - the first step in peptidoglycan synthesis (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Fosfomycin
126
Blocks formation of N-acetylmuramic acid from UDP-N-acetylglucosamine (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Fosfomycin
127
Is broad spectrum; for gram-positive and gram-negative, including E. coli, Enterococcus, MDR pathogens (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Fosfomycin
128
Used for uncomplicated UTI (oral single dose treatment) and often used when there is antibiotic resistance (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Fosfomycin
129
Fosfomycin is available as an oral sachet as __________
Fosfomycin trometamol
130
Structural analog of D-alanine; inhibits alanine racemase and D-alanine-D-alanine ligase (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Cycloserine
131
Blocks synthesis of D-Ala-D-ala dipeptide and inhibits peptidoglycan cross-linking (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Cycloserine
132
May be bacteriostatic or bactericidal (dose-dependent) (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Cycloserine
133
Broad gram-positive and gram-negative activity, but mainly used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Cycloserine
134
2nd line agent for drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB); rarely used outside of TB programs (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)
Cycloserine
135
Cycloserine may be co-administered with __________ to reduce neurotoxicity
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
136
Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines (Ribosomal subunit)
30S
137
Macrolides, lincosamides (clindamycin), chloramphenicol, oxazolidinones (linezolid), streptogramins (Ribosomal subunit)
50S
138
Includes gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin, neomycin (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Aminoglycosides
139
Irreversibly binds to 30S; bactericidal (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Aminoglycosides
140
Used for aerobic gram-negative bacilli; synergy with beta-lactams for gram-positives (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Aminoglycosides
141
Used for sepsis, endocarditis, resistant UTIs, pseudomonas infections (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Aminoglycosides
142
S/Es include nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, neuromuscular blockade (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Aminoglycosides
143
Require drug level monitoring (has narrow therapeutic index) (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Aminoglycosides
144
Most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside
Neomycin
145
High (vestibular) ototoxicity; moderate nephrotoxicity; used for TB, tularemia (Aminoglycosides)
Streptomycin
146
High (vestibular and cochlear) ototoxicity; high nephrotoxicity; used for sepsis, endocarditis, intra-abdominal (Aminoglycosides)
Gentamicin
147
Moderate (cochlear) ototoxicity; moderate nephrotoxicity; used for pseudomonas, CF (Aminoglycosides)
Tobramycin
148
Lower (relative) ototoxicity; lower nephrotoxicity; used for MDR TB, resistant G- (Aminoglycosides)
Amikacin
149
Rarely ototoxic; very high nephrotoxicity; topical/oral only (Aminoglycosides)
Neomycin
150
Includes doxycycline, tetracycline, minocycline (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Tetracyclines
151
Reversibly bind to 30S; bacteriostatic (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Tetracyclines
152
Used for G+, G-, intracellular organisms (Rickettsia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma) (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Tetracyclines
153
Used for acne, atypical pneumonia, STIs, Lyme disease, malaria prophylaxis (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Tetracyclines
154
S/Es include teeth discoloration, photosensitivity, GI upset, hepatotoxicity, reduced absorption with calcium/iron (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 30S)
Tetracyclines
155
Includes azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Macrolides
156
Inhibits translocation by binding 50S; bacteriostatic (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Macrolides
157
Used for URTIs, CAP, STIs, pertussis, H. pylori (clarithromycin) (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Macrolides
158
1st line macrolide for whooping cough
Azithromycin
159
S/Es include CYP3A4 inhibition (erythromycin, clarithromycin), GI upset (erythromycin), QT prolongation (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Macrolides
160
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis are __________ pathogens that cause CAP
Typical
161
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila are _________ pathogens that cause CAP
Atypical
162
1st line for outpatient (mild) CAP (CAP drugs) (DA)
Doxycycline, Amoxicillin
163
Moderate CAP (Hospital) (CAP drugs) (ID,CA)
IV benzylpenicillin + doxycycline, Ceftriaxone + azithromycin
164
Severe CAP (ICU) (CAP drugs) (IA)
IV ceftriaxone + azithromycin
165
Meaning of CAP
Community acquired pneumonia
166
Meaning of HAP
Hospital acquired pneumonia
167
Meaning of VAP
Ventilator associated pneumonia
168
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), Enterobacteriaceae (Klebsiella, E. coli), Acinetobacter baumannii causes _________ and _________ (HV)
Hospital acquired pneumonia (HAP), Ventilator associated pneumonia (VAP)
169
3 drugs for HAP/VAP (PCM)
Piperacillin-tazobactam, Cefepime, Meropenem
170
For HAP/VAP, add __________ or __________ if MRSA risk (VL)
Vancomycin, Linezolid
171
Includes clindamycin (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Lincosamides
172
50S binding; inhibits peptide transfer (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Lincosamides
173
Used for aspiration pneumonia, dental infections, anaerobic infections, skin infections (including MRSA) (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Lincosamides
174
S/Es include high risk of C. difficile colitis and GI upset (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Lincosamides
175
Includes linezolid (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Oxazolidinones
176
Binds 50S; blocks formation of initiation complex (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Oxazolidinones
177
Used for gram-positive, including MRSA, VRE (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Oxazolidinones
178
S/Es include myelosuppression (thrombocytopenia with prolonged use), serotonin syndrome (with SSRIs), peripheral and optic neuropathy (long term use) (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Oxazolidinones
179
50S binding; inhibits peptidyl transferase (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Chloramphenicol
180
Used for meningitis in developing countries and Rickettsial infections if tetracyclines contraindicated (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Chloramphenicol
181
S/Es include aplastic anemia (rare, idiosyncratic) and grey baby syndrome (due to immature glucuronidation in neonates) (Protein synthesis inhibitors - 50S)
Chloramphenicol
182
Mnemonics for ribosomal subunits of protein synthesis inhibitors
Buy AT 30, CCELL at 50 (30S = aminoglycosides, tetracyclines; 50S = chloramphenicol, clindamycin, erythromycin, linezolid
183
Includes ciprofloxacin and norfloxacin (mostly urinary) and levofloxacin and moxifloxacin (respiratory) (DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Fluoroquinolones
184
Inhibits DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV; prevent supercoiling (DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Fluoroquinolones
185
Broad; for gram-negatives; some gram-positives and atypicals (DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Fluoroquinolones
186
Strong gram negative activity (e.g. Pseudomonas) (Fluoroquinolones)
Ciprofloxacin
187
Better gram positive and atypical coverage (Fluoroquinolones) (LM)
Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin
188
Used for UTIs, prostatitis, CAP, atypical pneumonia, traveller's diarrhea, bone/joint infections (DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Fluoroquinolones
189
S/Es include QT prolongation, tendon rupture/tendinitis, photosensitivity (DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Fluoroquinolones
190
MDR UTI or pyelonephritis (Fluoroquinolone used)
Ciprofloxacin
191
Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections in cystic fibrosis (Fluoroquinolone used)
Ciprofloxacin
192
Post exposure prophylaxis for inhalational anthrax (Fluoroquinolone used)
Ciprofloxacin
193
Shigella, Salmonella, or Campylobacter (if resistant to others) (Fluoroquinolone used)
Ciprofloxacin
194
Severe typhoid fever (resistant strains) (Fluoroquinolone used)
Ciprofloxacin
195
Prodrug; forms free radicals; no aerobic activity (DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Metronidazole
196
Used for anaerobes (Bacteroides, Clostridium spp.) and protozoa (Giardia, Trichomonas, Entamoeba) (DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Metronidazole
197
Used for C. difficile colitis (alternative to vancomycin) (DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Metronidazole
198
S/Es include metallic taste, disulfiram-like reaction, peripheral neuropathy (DNA/RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Metronidazole
199
Includes rifampicin (RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Rifamycins
200
Binds bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase; blocks transcription (RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Rifamycins
201
1st line drug for tuberculosis
Rifamycins (Rifampicin)
202
Used for tuberculosis, leprosy (with dapsone, clofazimine), prophylaxis for meningococcal and H. influenzae exposure, prosthetic joint infections (RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Rifamycins
203
S/Es include hepatotoxicity, potent CYP450 inducer, orange-red discoloration of body fluids (RNA synthesis inhibitors)
Rifamycins
204
These antibiotics inhibit bacterial folate metabolism, which is essential for DNA synthesis (Types of antibacterials)
Folate synthesis inhibitors
205
Includes sulfamethoxazole (Folate synthesis inhibitors)
Sulfonamides
206
Competitive inhibitor of dihydropteroate synthase (DHPS) (Folate synthesis inhibitors)
Sulfonamides
207
Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) (Folate synthesis inhibitors)
Trimethoprim
208
Synergistic; blocks two steps in folate synthesis; bactericidal together but bacteriostatic individually (Folate synthesis inhibitors)
Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) (Co-trimoxazole)
209
1st line unless resistance or sulfa allergy (Indications for TMP-SMX)
Uncomplicated UTI
210
Especially community-acquired (Indications for TMP-SMX)
MRSA skin infections
211
Treatment and prophylaxis in immunocompromised patients (Indications for TMP-SMX)
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)
212
DOC (Indications for TMP-SMX)
Nocardiosis
213
DOC for nocardiosis
Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) (Co-trimoxazole)
214
Good penetration (Indications for TMP-SMX)
Prostatitis
215
Especially in HIV patients (Indications for TMP-SMX)
Toxoplasmosis (alternative)
216
Rash, urticaria, Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), toxic epidermal necrolysis (TMP-SMX - system affected)
Dermatologic
217
Megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia (TMP-SMX - system affected)
Hematologic
218
Crystalluria, hyperkalemia, interstitial nephritis (TMP-SMX - system affected)
Renal
219
Photosensitivity, kernicterus in neonates (TMP-SMX - system affected)
Others
220
TMP-SMX is contraindicated in __________ due to risk of neural tube defects and kernicterus
Pregnancy (especially 3rd trimester)
221
TMP-SMX is contraindicated in _________ due to immature liver
Neonates <2 months
222
These agents disrupt the bacterial cell membrane, leading to loss of membrane integrity, leakage of contents, and cell death; this mechanism is rapidly bactericidal (Types of antibacterials)
Membrane disruptors
223
Includes polymyxin B and E (colistin) (Membrane disruptors)
Polymyxin
224
Polymyxin E is also known as __________
Colistin
225
Binds to LPS (lipopolysaccharide) and phospholipids in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria (Membrane disruptors)
Polymyxins
226
For gram-negative only, including MDR bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, Klebsiella pneumoniae (Membrane disruptors)
Polymyxins
227
Used as salvage therapy for MDR infections and topical use in combination creams (Membrane disruptors)
Polymyxins
228
S/Es include nephrotoxicity (dose-dependent, reversible) and neurotoxicity (paresthesia, dizziness, neuromuscular blockade) (Membrane disruptors)
Polymyxins
229
Includes daptomycin (Membrane disruptors)
Lipopeptides
230
Inserts into gram-positive bacterial membranes in a calcium-dependent manner (Membrane disruptors)
Lipopeptides
231
Causes depolarization and potassium efflux; inhibition of protein, DNA, and RNA synthesis (Membrane disruptors)
Lipopeptides
232
Used for gram-positive bacteria only, including MRSA, VRE, Streptococcus, Staphylococcus (Membrane disruptors)
Lipopeptides
233
Meaning of VRE
Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus
234
Used for bacteremia, endocarditis, bone/joint infections (Membrane disruptors)
Lipopeptides
235
Lipopeptides are not for pneumonia; inactivated by __________
Lung surfactant
236
S/Es include myopathy and eosinophilic pneumonia (rare) (Membrane disruptors)
Lipopeptides
237
Topical use only; disrupts cation permeability (Other membrane agents)
Gramicidin
238
Found in tyrocidine-containing topical formulations (Other membrane agents)
Tyrocidine
239
Also affects membrane transport; used topically only (Other membrane agents)
Bacitracin
240
Target spectrum - gram-negative (Membrane disruptors)
Polymyxins
241
Target spectrum - gram-positive (Membrane disruptors)
Daptomycin
242
Target spectrum - topical use only (Membrane disruptors)
Gramicidin
243
MOA - disrupt outer membrane (LPS) (Membrane disruptors)
Polymyxins
244
MOA - depolarizes membrane (Membrane disruptors)
Daptomycin
245
MOA - alters membrane ion transport (Membrane disruptors)
Gramicidin
246
Used for MDR gram-negative infections (Membrane disruptors)
Polymyxins
247
Used for MRSA, VRE, bacteremia (Membrane disruptors)
Daptomycin
248
Used as topical antiseptic (Membrane disruptors)
Gramicidin
249
Key side effects - nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity (Membrane disruptors)
Polymyxins
250
Key side effects - myopathy, eosinophilic pneumonia (Membrane disruptors)
Daptomycin
251
Key side effects - irritation if systemic (Membrane disruptors)
Gramicidin
252
Example of acid fast bacteria
Mycobacterium
253
Staphylococcus (Bacteria shape)
G+ cocci
254
Streptococcus (Bacteria shape)
G+ cocci
255
Enterococcus (Bacteria shape)
G+ cocci
256
Bacillus (Bacteria shape)
G+ rods
257
Clostridium (Bacteria shape)
G+ rods
258
Listeria (Bacteria shape)
G+ rods
259
Corynebacterium (Bacteria shape)
G+ rods
260
Neisseria (Bacteria shape)
G- cocci
261
Klebsiella (Bacteria shape)
G- rods
262
E. coli (Bacteria shape)
G- rods
263
Pseudomonas (Bacteria shape)
G- rods
264
Proteus (Bacteria shape)
G- rods
265
Salmonella (Bacteria shape)
G- rods
266
Shigella (Bacteria shape)
G- rods