MISC - Final Term Sample Questions Flashcards by Juan Carlos Cornelio

Which beta lactam is resistant to most beta lactamases due to its bulky side chain?

a. Nafcillin
b. Ampicillin
c. Cefixime
d. Piperacillin
e. Ceftaroline

a. Nafcillin

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The “post-antibiotic effect” is strongest with which class?

a. Macrolides
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Cephalosporins
d. Sulfonamides
e. Tetracyclines

b. Aminoglycosides

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Which drug inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase?

a. Sulfamethoxazole
b. Trimethoprim
c. Linezolid
d. Doxycycline
e. Ciprofloxacin

b. Trimethoprim

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Which drug has the highest risk of tendon rupture?

a. Azithromycin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Ceftriaxone
e. Clindamycin

c. Ciprofloxacin

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A patient develops red-orange body secretions. Which drug is responsible?

a. Metronidazole
b. Nitrofurantoin
c. Rifampin
d. Cefdinir
e. Vancomycin

c. Rifampin

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The major toxicity of daptomycin is:

a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Myopathy
c. Ototoxicity
d. QT prolongation
e. Pulmonary fibrosis

b. Myopathy

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Which macrolide is safest for pregnancy?

a. Clarithromycin
b. Erythromycin estolate
c. Azithromycin
d. Telithromycin
e. Spiramycin

c. Azithromycin

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Which antibacterial binds the 30S subunit to block tRNA attachment?

a. Azithromycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Gentamicin
d. Doxycycline
e. Linezolid

d. Doxycycline

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Which drug causes dose-dependent bone marrow suppression?

a. Linezolid
b. Vancomycin
c. Amikacin
d. Penicillin
e. Aztreonam

a. Linezolid

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Which penicillin is best for Listeria monocytogenes?

a. Cloxacillin
b. Nafcillin
c. Ampicillin
d. Oxacillin
e. Dicloxacillin

c. Ampicillin

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Which cephalosporin is most effective for anaerobes?

a. Cefazolin
b. Cefuroxime
c. Cefoxitin
d. Ceftriaxone
e. Cefixime

c. Cefoxitin

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Which agent is a lipopeptide?

a. Tigecycline
b. Daptomycin
c. Quinupristin
d. Lefamulin
e. Polymyxin B

b. Daptomycin

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Which drug inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV?

a. Rifampin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Amoxicillin
d. Tobramycin
e. Chloramphenicol

b. Ciprofloxacin

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A patient has grey baby syndrome. Which drug caused it?

a. Erythromycin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Clindamycin
d. Cefazolin
e. Tetracycline

b. Chloramphenicol

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Which drug requires QT monitoring?

a. Penicillin V
b. Linezolid
c. Clarithromycin
d. TMP-SMX
e. Daptomycin

c. Clarithromycin

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Which drug has excellent biofilm penetration?

a. Vancomycin
b. Rifampin
c. Gentamicin
d. Cefepime
e. Azithromycin

b. Rifampin

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Which drug causes “orange urine” by crystalluria?

a. Nitrofurantoin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. TMP-SMX
d. Metronidazole
e. Phenazopyridine

e. Phenazopyridine

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Which drug is used for aspiration pneumonia due to anaerobes?

a. Azithromycin
b. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
c. Gentamicin
d. Linezolid
e. Levofloxacin

b. Amoxicillin-clavulanate

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Which drug is most associated with serotonin syndrome?

a. Clindamycin
b. Linezolid
c. Cefdinir
d. Doxycycline
e. Aztreonam

b. Linezolid

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Which drug has 100% oral bioavailability?

a. Vancomycin (IV)
b. Azithromycin
c. Linezolid
d. Cefuroxime
e. Piperacillin

c. Linezolid

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Which antibiotic causes teeth discoloration?

a. Gentamicin
b. Doxycycline
c. Amoxicillin
d. Metronidazole
e. Rifampin

b. Doxycycline

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Mechanism of clindamycin

a. Inhibits translocation on 50S
b. Inhibits mRNA synthesis
c. Blocks tRNA entry
d. Inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
e. Inhibits folate synthesis

a. Inhibits translocation on 50S

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Which carbapenem is safest for seizure risk?

a. Imipenem
b. Meropenem
c. Doripenem
d. Ertapenem
e. Aztreonam

b. Meropenem

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Which drug is first-line for plague (Yersinia pestis)?

a. Doxycycline
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Streptomycin
d. Amoxicillin
e. Cefuroxime

c. Streptomycin

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Vancomycin's primary mechanism is: a. PBP inhibition b. 30S inhibition c. 50S inhibition d. D-Ala-D-Ala binding e. DNA gyrase inhibition

d. D-Ala-D-Ala binding

Which drug can cause antabuse-like reaction with alcohol? a. Cefazolin b. Ceftriaxone c. Cefotetan d. Cefepime e. Cefixime

c. Cefotetan

Which drug has no gram-positive activity? a. Gentamicin b. Azithromycin c. Ceftriaxone d. Levofloxacin e. TMP-SMX

a. Gentamicin

Which antibiotic causes pulmonary fibrosis long-term? a. Minocycline b. Nitrofurantoin c. Chloramphenicol d. Clindamycin e. Amoxicillin

b. Nitrofurantoin

Which drug is best for atypical pneumonia? a. Cefazolin b. Azithromycin c. Nafcillin d. Cefepime e. Dicloxacillin

b. Azithromycin

Which drug has the strongest Pseudomonas activity? a. Meropenem b. Ampicillin c. Cefotaxime d. Tetracycline e. Clindamycin

a. Meropenem

Polymyxins act by: a. Cell wall synthesis inhibition b. Protein synthesis inhibition c. DNA synthesis inhibition d. Cell membrane disruption e. Folate inhibition

d. Cell membrane disruption

Which drug most commonly causes C. difficile infection? a. Metronidazole b. Ceftriaxone c. Ciprofloxacin d. Clindamycin e. TMP-SMX

d. Clindamycin

Which drug is a time-dependent bactericidal? a. Aminoglycosides b. Fluoroquinolones c. Carbapenems d. Beta lactams e. Polymyxins

d. Beta lactams

Which drug is contraindicated in myasthenia gravis? a. Amoxicillin b. Clindamycin c. Ciprofloxacin d. Vancomycin e. Gentamicin

e. Gentamicin

Mechanism of metronidazole a. Free radical formation b. Folate inhibition c. 50S binding d. 30S binding e. Membrane pore formation

a. Free radical formation

Which drug's absorption decreases with calcium? a. Amoxicillin b. Doxycycline c. Azithromycin d. Cefuroxime e. TMP-SMX

b. Doxycycline

Which drug is used for Neisseria meningitidis prophylaxis? a. Penicillin V b. Vancomycin c. Rifampin d. Cefixime e. Ciprofloxacin

c. Rifampin

Which drug causes "inverse effect" - worsening myasthenia? a. Clindamycin b. Penicillin c. Gentamicin d. Daptomycin e. Azithromycin

c. Gentamicin

Which tetracycline is IV only? a. Doxycycline b. Minocycline c. Tigecycline d. Sarecycline e. Tetracycline

c. Tigecycline

Which drug can cause lupus-like syndrome? a. Trimethoprim b. Cefuroxime c. Minocycline d. Azithromycin e. Vancomycin

c. Minocycline

Which TB drug is activated by bactericidal catalase-peroxidase? a. Rifampin b. Isoniazid c. Pyrazinamide d. Ethambutol e. Streptomycin

b. Isoniazid

Which drug inhibits mycolic acid synthesis? a. Pyrazinamide b. Ethambutol c. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin e. Rifampin

c. Isoniazid

Which drug is safe in renal failure? a. Streptomycin b. Ethambutol c. Isoniazid d. Amikacin e. Cycloserine

c. Isoniazid

Which drug causes orange tears and sweat? a. Isoniazid b. Pyrazinamide c. Rifampin d. Ethionamide e. Capreomycin

c. Rifampin

Optic neuritis presents as loss of: a. Blue-yellow vision b. Red-green discrimination c. Peripheral vision d. Central scotoma e. Night vision

b. Red-green discrimination

Which drug causes hepatotoxicity via dose-dependent toxicity? a. Streptomycin b. Rifampin c. Isoniazid d. Ethambutol e. Capreomycin

c. Isoniazid

Which TB drug is most ototoxic? a. Pyrazinamide b. Streptomycin c. Isoniazid d. Ethambutol e. Capreomycin

b. Streptomycin

Which is used for latent TB treatment alternative to INH? a. Rifapentine b. Ethionamide c. Streptomycin d. PAS e. Capreomycin

a. Rifapentine

Which drug causes hyperuricemia? a. Isoniazid b. Rifampin c. Pyrazinamide d. Ethambutol e. Cycloserine

c. Pyrazinamide

Mechanism of streptomycin a. 50S inhibition b. 30S inhibition c. Folate inhibition d. RNA polymerase inhibition e. DNA polymerase inhibition

b. 30S inhibition

Which drug is most associated with peripheral neuropathy? a. Pyrazinamide b. Isoniazid c. Rifampin d. Streptomycin e. PAS

b. Isoniazid

Which drug must be avoided in gout? a. Isoniazid b. Rifampin c. Pyrazinamide d. Ethambutol e. Streptomycin

c. Pyrazinamide

Mechanism of rifampin a. Inhibits DNA gyrase b. Inhibits folate synthesis c. Inhibits RNA polymerase d. Inhibits mycolic acid e. Inhibits arabinogalactan

c. Inhibits RNA polymerase

Which drug is used for leprosy for anti-inflammatory effect? a. Rifampin b. Clofazimine c. Ethionamide d. PAS e. Cycloserine

b. Clofazimine

Which drug causes psychosis at high doses? a. Isoniazid b. Ethambutol c. Cycloserine d. Rifampin e. Clofazimine

c. Cycloserine

Which drug is used for MDR-TB oral second-line therapy? a. Capreomycin b. Amikacin c. Bedaquiline d. Streptomycin e. Rifapentine

c. Bedaquiline

Mechanism of bedaquiline a. ATP synthase inhibition b. Mycolic acid inhibition c. RNA polymerase inhibition d. Protein synthesis inhibition e. Membrane pore inhibition

a. ATP synthase inhibition

Which TB drug turns skin dark brown? a. Ethambutol b. Rifampin c. Clofazimine d. Cycloserine e. PAS

c. Clofazimine

Used for MAC treatment a. Rifampicin + INH b. Clarithromycin + Ethambutol c. Linezolid + PAS d. Rifabutin + Capreomycin e. Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide

b. Clarithromycin + Ethambutol

Which drug causes severe GI intolerance requiring dose reduction? a. Ethionamide b. Rifampin c. Isoniazid d. Ethambutol e. Pyrazinamide

a. Ethionamide

Amphotericin B causes: a. Ototoxicity b. Nephrotoxicity c. Pulmonary fibrosis d. Bone marrow suppression e. QT shortening

b. Nephrotoxicity

Mechanism of azoles a. Inhibit beta-glucan synthesis b. Bind ergosterol to form pores c. Inhibit ergosterol synthesis d. Block RNA polymerase e. Inhibit DNA synthesis

c. Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

Which drug is best for aspergillosis? a. Fluconazole b. Amphotericin B c. Itraconazole d. Nystatin e. Terbinafine

b. Amphotericin B

Caspofungin inhibits: a. Ergosterol synthesis b. Beta-glucan synthesis c. Ergosterol binding d. RNA synthesis e. DNA synthesis

b. Beta-glucan synthesis

Terbinafine inhibits: a. 14-alpha-methylase b. Lanosterol synthesis c. Squalene epoxidase d. Beta-glucan synthetase e. 1,3-glucan hydrolase

c. Squalene epoxidase

Side effect of voriconazole: a. Blue vision b. Visual hallucinations c. Permanent blindness d. Hair loss e. Bone pain

b. Visual hallucinations

Flucytosine major toxicity a. Bone marrow suppression b. Hepatotoxicity c. Renal failure d. Anaphylaxis e. Peripheral neuropathy

a. Bone marrow suppression

Nystatin is used for: a. Systemic candidiasis b. Dermatophytes c. Oral thrush d. Aspergillosis e. Sporothrix

c. Oral thrush

Which antifungal causes gynecomastia due to anti-androgen effects? a. Terbinafine b. Fluconazole c. Ketoconazole d. Amphotericin e. Caspofungin

c. Ketoconazole

Drug of choice for mucormycosis a. Nystatin b. Fluconazole c. Amphotericin B d. Itraconazole e. Terbinafine

c. Amphotericin B

Echinocandins are: a. Oral only b. IV only c. Oral and IV d. IM only e. Topical only

b. IV only

Drug most associated with fever/chills on infusion a. Amphotericin B b. Fluconazole c. Terbinafine d. Itraconazole e. Griseofulvin

a. Amphotericin B

Which drug induces hepatic microsomal enzymes strongly? a. Amphotericin b. Ketoconazole c. Griseofulvin d. Caspofungin e. Micafungin

c. Griseofulvin

Griseofulvin acts by: a. Microtubule disruption b. DNA inhibition c. RNA inhibition d. Protein synthesis disruption e. Beta-glucan synthesis inhibition

a. Microtubule disruption

Which drug causes QT prolongation? a. Fluconazole b. Amphotericin c. Caspofungin d. Terbinafine e. Nystatin

a. Fluconazole

Which NRTI causes macrocytic anemia? a. Lamivudine b. Abacavir c. Zidovudine d. Tenofovir e. Emtricitabine

c. Zidovudine

NNRTI associated with rash and hepatotoxicity a. Efavirenz b. Nevirapine c. Rilpivirine d. Dolutegravir e. Ritonavir

b. Nevirapine

Which drug is boosted by cobicistat? a. Dolutegravir b. Darunavir c. Emtricitabine d. Tenofovir e. Zidovudine

b. Darunavir

Fusion inhibitor of HIV a. Enfuvirtide b. Raltegravir c. Efavirenz d. Tenofovir e. Darunavir

a. Enfuvirtide

Entry inhibitor that blocks CCR5 a. Efavirenz b. Raltegravir c. Maraviroc d. Zidovudine e. Enfuvirtide

c. Maraviroc

Integrase inhibitors cause: a. Nephrotoxicity b. Cardiotoxicity c. Weight gain d. Ototoxicity e. Bone marrow suppression

c. Weight gain

Which antiretroviral is nephrotoxic (Fanconi syndrome)? a. Emtricitabine b. Tenofovir c. Zidovudine d. Efavirenz e. Ritonavir

b. Tenofovir

Abacavir hypersensitivity is associated with: a. HLA-B*5701 b. HLA-B*1502 c. HLA-A*1101 d. HLA-DR4 e. HLA-DQ8

a. HLA-B*5701

Which drug causes vivid dreams? a. Tenofovir b. Efavirenz c. Abacavir d. Dolutegravir e. Ritonavir

b. Efavirenz

Which drug must be avoided with PPIs? a. Efavirenz b. Rilpivirine c. Tenofovir d. Emtricitabine e. Dolutegravir

b. Rilpivirine

Protease inhibitors commonly cause: a. Hypoglycemia b. Weight loss c. Lipodystrophy d. Bone marrow suppression e. Anhidrosis

c. Lipodystrophy

Dolutegravir's common effect on the fetus a. Neural tube defects (rare early concern) b. Limb defects c. Hearing loss d. Blindness e. Hypothyroidism

a. Neural tube defects (rare early concern)

Which drug requires tropism testing? a. Efavirenz b. Maraviroc c. Raltegravir d. Ritonavir e. Lamivudine

b. Maraviroc

Ritonavir's main role in HAART is: a. Active antiretroviral b. PK booster c. Fusion inhibitor d. Entry inhibitor e. Integrase inhibitor

b. PK booster

Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) occurs in: a. Long-term therapy b. Initiation of ART c. Stopping ART d. Switching to protease inhibitor e. Tenofovir toxicity

b. Initiation of ART

Methotrexate toxicity is reduced with: a. Pyridoxine b. Leucovorin c. Folic acid d. Vitamin C e. VItamin K

b. Leucovorin

Cyclophosphamide causes: a. Nephrotoxicity b. Hemorrhagic cystitis c. Cardiotoxicity d. Neurotoxicity e. Lung fibrosis

b. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Treatment to prevent cyclophosphamide cystitis a. Allopurinol b. MESNA c. Mannitol d. Leucovorin e. Vitamin E

b. MESNA

Doxorubicin toxicity a. Lung fibrosis b. Renal failure c. Cardiotoxicity d. Hepatic failure e. GI perforation

c. Cardiotoxicity

Bleomycin toxicity a. Hepatotoxicity b. Lung fibrosis c. Renal failure d. GI toxicity e. Cardiotoxicity

b. Lung fibrosis

Vincristine toxicity a. Myelosuppression b. Peripheral neuropathy c. Alopecia d. Bladder toxicity e. Ototoxicity

b. Peripheral neuropathy

Cisplatin toxicity can be prevented with: a. Dexamethasone b. MESNA c. Amifostine d. Vitamin A e. Calcium gluconate

c. Amifostine

Paclitaxel arrest cells in: a. S-phase b. M-phase c. G1-phase d. G2-phase e. G0-phase

b. M-phase

Imatinib targets: a. EGFR b. VEGF c. BCR-ABL d. CD20 e. PD-1

c. BCR-ABL

Tamoxifen mechanism a. Aromatase inhibition b. SERM c. Androgen receptor blocker d. Anti-VEGF e. PARP inhibitor

b. SERM

MISC - Final Term Sample Questions Flashcards

(100 cards)