MISC - Must Know Details

Question 1

DOC for Strep throat (PA)

Answer 1

Penicillin, Amoxicillin

Question 2

DOC for S. aureus (MSSA) (FC)

Answer 2

Flucloxacillin, Cefazolin IV

Question 3

DOC for MRSA (VLDT)

Answer 3

Vancomycin, Linezolid, Doxycycline, TMP-SMX

Question 4

DOC for Pseudomonas (PCMC)

Answer 4

Piperacillin-tazobactam, Cefepime, Meropenem, Ciprofloxacin

Question 5

DOC for Atypical pneumonia (Mycoplasma, chlamydia, legionella) (MD)

Answer 5

Macrolides, Doxycyline

Question 6

DOC for anaerobes above diaphragm

Answer 6

Clindamycin

Question 7

DOC for anaerobes below diaphragm

Answer 7

Metronidazole

Question 8

DOC for C. difficile (OF)

Answer 8

Oral vancomycin, Fidaxomicin

Question 9

DOC for UTI (uncomplicated) (NT)

Answer 9

Nitrofurantoin, TMP-SMX

Question 10

Side effect of aminoglycosides (NO)

Answer 10

Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity

Question 11

Side effect of tetracyclines (TP)

Answer 11

Teeth/bone, Photosensitivity

Question 12

Side effect of fluoroquinolones (TQ)

Answer 12

Tendon rupture, QT prolongation

Question 13

Side effect of chloramphenicol

Answer 13

Aplastic anemia

Question 14

DOC for otitis media

Answer 14

Amoxicillin

Question 15

DOC for otitis media (resistant to amoxicillin)

Answer 15

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

Question 16

DOC for pharyngitis (PA)

Answer 16

Penicillin V, Amoxicillin

Question 17

DOC for pharyngitis (if penicillin-allergic) (CA)

Answer 17

Cephalexin (mild allergy), Azithromycin (severe allergy)

Question 18

Most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside

Answer 18

Neomycin

Question 19

Carbapenem with lowest seizure risk

Answer 19

Meropenem

Question 20

Carbapenem with highest seizure risk

Answer 20

Imipenem

Question 21

Antiretroviral drug that causes SJS

Answer 21

Nevirapine

Question 22

Highest tendency for disulfiram effect (2nd generation cephalosporin)

Answer 22

Cefotetan

Question 23

Has anaerobic activity; for pelvic inflammatory disease (2nd generation cephalosporin)

Answer 23

Cefoxitin

Question 24

Only 3rd generation cephalosporin used as an antipseudomonal

Answer 24

Ceftazidime

Question 25

Used for MRSA (5th generation cephalosporins) (CC)

Answer 25

Ceftaroline, Ceftabiprole

Question 26

Has pseudomonal activity (Cephalosporin generation)

Answer 26

4th generation

Question 27

Has no pseudomonal activity (Cephalosporin generation)

Answer 27

5th generation

Question 28

Anti-leprosy drug that causes red/brown skin discoloration

Answer 28

Clofazimine

Question 29

Polymyxins (G+ or G- only)

Answer 29

G-

Question 30

Aminoglycosides (G+ or G- only)

Answer 30

G-

Question 31

Aztreonam (G+ or G- only)

Answer 31

G-

Question 32

Vancomycin (G+ or G- only)

Answer 32

G+

Question 33

Most ototoxic aminoglycoside

Answer 33

Streptomycin

Question 34

Aminoglycoside that is both nephrotoxic and ototoxic

Answer 34

Gentamicin

Question 35

Aminoglycoside used for cystic fibrosis and pseudomonas

Answer 35

Tobramycin

Question 36

Used as surgical prophylaxis (1st generation cephalosporin)

Answer 36

Cefazolin

Question 37

DOC for whooping cough

Answer 37

Azithromycin

Question 38

DOC for outpatient CAP (DA)

Answer 38

Doxycycline, Amoxicillin

Question 39

DOC for nocardiosis

Answer 39

TMP-SMX

Question 40

Other name for polymyxin E

Answer 40

Colistin

Question 41

Backbone of MAC treatment

Answer 41

Macrolides (Azithromycin, Clarithromycin)

Question 42

Binds ergosterol (Membrane disruptors - polyenes)

Answer 42

Amphotericin B

Question 43

For Candida infections (Membrane disruptors - polyenes)

Answer 43

Nystatin

Question 44

Inhibits 14a-demethylase (Ergosterol synthesis inhibitors)

Answer 44

Azoles

Question 45

Only azole that shortens QT

Answer 45

Isavuconazole

Question 46

Inhibits beta-1,3-glucan synthase (Cell wall synthesis inhibitors)

Answer 46

Echinocandins

Question 47

Converted to 5-FU in fungal cells (Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor)

Answer 47

Flucytosine (5-FC)

Question 48

Prevents mitosis (Microtubule inhibitor)

Answer 48

Griseofulvin

Question 49

Disrupts ergosterol synthesis (Squalene epoxidase inhibitors)

Answer 49

Terbinafine

Question 50

DOC for onchomycosis

Answer 50

Oral terbinafine

Question 51

DOC for vulvovaginal candidiasis and candidemia

Answer 51

Fluconazole

Question 52

DOC for severe/systemic Candida

Answer 52

Enchinocandins

Question 53

DOC for invasive aspergillosis

Answer 53

Voriconazole

Question 54

Empiric antifungal therapy in neutropenic patients (EL)

Answer 54

Echinocandin, Liposomal amphotericin B

Question 55

Aspergillus spp. resistance to itraconazole (Drug to use) (VI)

Answer 55

Voriconazole, Isavuconazole

Question 56

Candida glabrata and auris resistance to azoles (Drug to use)

Answer 56

Echinocandins

Question 57

Use therapeutic drug monitoring for __________ and _________ (Antifungals) (VI)

Answer 57

Voriconazole, Itraconazole

Question 58

Free radicals damage DNA (Antiprotozoals)

Answer 58

Nitroimidazoles

Question 59

Inhibit heme polymerase (Antiprotozoals)

Answer 59

Aminoquinolines

Question 60

Form reactive free radicals that disrupt calcium homeostasis (Antiprotozoals)

Answer 60

Artemisinin derivatives

Question 61

Binds beta tubulin and inhibits microtubules (Anthelmintics)

Answer 61

Benzimidazoles

Question 62

Target GABA/glutamate chloride channels (Avermectins)

Answer 62

Ivermectin

Question 63

Neuromuscular nicotinic agonist (Nicotinic agonists)

Answer 63

Pyrantel pamoate

Question 64

Increases calcium influx and causes spastic paralysis (Anthelmintics)

Answer 64

Praziquantel

Question 65

Alters parasite surface; host immune attack (Anthelmintics)

Answer 65

Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)

Question 66

Blocks oxidative phosphorylation in tapeworms (Anthelmintics)

Answer 66

Niclosamide

Question 67

DOC for shingles (herpes zoster)

Answer 67

Valaciclovir

Question 68

CCR5-topic virus only (needs tropism test) (Entry and fusion inhibitors) (Step 1)

Answer 68

Maraviroc

Question 69

Fusion inhibitor; rarely used (injectable only) (Entry and fusion inhibitors) (Step 1)

Answer 69

Enfuvirtide

Question 70

Tenofovir, Lamivudine, Abacavir (Antiretroviral drug class) (Step 2)

Answer 70

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

Question 71

Efavirenz, Nevirapine (Antiretroviral drug class) (Step 2)

Answer 71

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)

Question 72

Backbone agent (NRTIs)

Answer 72

Tenofovir disoproxil (TDF)

Question 73

__________ is used with tenofovir (NRTIs)

Answer 73

Emtricitabine

Question 74

Avoid if HLA-B*5701 positive (NRTIs)

Answer 74

Abacavir

Question 75

"-virine" drugs (Antiretroviral drugs)

Answer 75

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)

Question 76

Efavirenz, Rilpivirine (Antiretroviral drug class) (Step 2)

Answer 76

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)

Question 77

"-tegravir" (Antiretroviral drug class) (Step 3)

Answer 77

Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs)

Question 78

Dolutegravir, Bictegravir, Raltegravir (Antiretroviral drug class) (Step 3)

Answer 78

Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs)

Question 79

"-navir" drugs (Antiretroviral drugs) (Step 6)

Answer 79

Protease inhibitors (PIs)

Question 80

Atazanavir, Darunavir, Lopinavir (Antiretroviral drugs) (Step 6)

Answer 80

Protease inhibitors (PIs)

Question 81

PrEP for HIV (TE)

Answer 81

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate + Emtricitabine

Question 82

PEP for HIV (DTE)

Answer 82

Dolutegravir + Tenofovir disoproxil + Emtricitabine

Question 83

Suffix for antiviral drugs

Answer 83

-vir

Question 84

Covalently bind to DNA -> cross linking (Anticancer agents)

Answer 84

Alkylating agents

Question 85

Cyclophosphamide, Ifosfamide, Busulfan, Carmustine, Temozolomide (Anticancer agents)

Answer 85

Alkylating agents

Question 86

Cornerstone in breast cancer, lymphoma (Alkylating agents)

Answer 86

Cyclophosphamide

Question 87

For sarcoma, testicular cancer (Alkylating agents)

Answer 87

Ifosfamide

Question 88

DOC for glioblastoma (Alkylating agents)

Answer 88

Temozolamide

Question 89

Conditioning before stem cell transplant (Anticancer agents)

Answer 89

Busulfan

Question 90

S/E of cyclophosphamide

Answer 90

Hemorrhagic cystitis

Question 91

Treatment for hemorrhagic cystitis due to cyclophosphamide

Answer 91

MESNA

Question 92

Cross-link DNA similar to alkylators (Anticancer agents)

Answer 92

Platinum compounds

Question 93

Cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin (Anticancer agents)

Answer 93

Platinum compounds

Question 94

S/E of cisplatin

Answer 94

Nephrotoxicity

Question 95

Treatment for nephrotoxicity due to cisplatin (HA)

Answer 95

Hydration, Amifostine

Question 96

Interfere with nucleotide synthesis; S-phase specific (Anticancer agents)

Answer 96

Antimetabolites

Question 97

Methotrexate (folate antagonist), 5-FU and capecitabine (pyrimidine analog), 6-mercaptopurine and 6-thioguanine (purine analog) (Anticancer agents)

Answer 97

Antimetabolites

Question 98

Methotrexate toxicity is reversible with _________

Answer 98

Leucovorin rescue

Question 99

Disrupts microtubules and causes mitotic arrest (M phase) (Anticancer agents)

Answer 99

Antimicrotubule agents

Question 100

Vincristine and vinblastine (vinca alkaloids) prevent __________ (Antimicrotubule agents)

Answer 100

Formation

Question 101

Paclitaxel and docetaxel (taxanes) prevent _________ (Antimicrotubule agents)

Answer 101

Disassembly

Question 102

Vincristine is _________ (Antimicrotubule agents)

Answer 102

Neurotoxic

Question 103

Vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel, docetaxel (Anticancer agents)

Answer 103

Antimicrotubule agents

Question 104

Antimicrotubule agents, especially _________ causes peripheral neuropathy (Anticancer agents)

Answer 104

Vincristine

Question 105

Give __________ premedication for taxanes

Answer 105

Dexamethasone

Question 106

Avoid __________ vincristine

Answer 106

Intrathecal

Question 107

Interfere with topoisomerase enzymes (Anticancer agents)

Answer 107

Topoisomerase inhibitors

Question 108

Topotecan, irinotecan, etoposide (Anticancer agents)

Answer 108

Topoisomerase inhibitors

Question 109

Topotecan and irinotecan interfere with __________ (Topoisomerase inhibitors)

Answer 109

Topoisomerase I

Question 110

Etoposide interferes with __________ (Topoisomerase inhibitors)

Answer 110

Topoisomerase II

Question 111

Irinotecan causes diarrhea; use __________ or __________ (LA)

Answer 111

Loperamide, Atropine

Question 112

Intercalate DNA, inhibit topoisomerase II, generate ROS (Anticancer agents)

Answer 112

Anthracyclines

Question 113

Doxorubicin, daunorubicin, epirubicin (Anticancer agents)

Answer 113

Anthracyclines

Question 114

Use _________ as cardioprotection for anthracyclines

Answer 114

Dexrazoxane

Question 115

Inhibit intracellular signaling (Anticancer agents)

Answer 115

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)

Question 116

Imatinib, erlotinib, gefitinib, sunitinib, sorafenib (Anticancer agents)

Answer 116

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)

Question 117

Targets CML-BCR-ABL (TKIs)

Answer 117

Imatinib

Question 118

Targets EGFR (TKIs) (EG)

Answer 118

Erlotinib, Gefitinib

Question 119

Targets VEGFR (TKIs) (SS)

Answer 119

Sunitinib, Sorafenib

Question 120

Engineered proteins that bind specific antigens (Anticancer agents)

Answer 120

Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)

Question 121

Trastuzumab, rituximab, bevacizumab (Anticancer agents)

Answer 121

Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)

Question 122

Targets HER2 (mAbs)

Answer 122

Trastuzumab

Question 123

Targets CD20 (mAbs)

Answer 123

Rituximab

Question 123

Nivolumab, pembrolizumab, atezolizumab, ipilimumab (Anticancer agents)

Answer 123

Immune checkpoint inhibitors

Question 124

Targets VEGF (mAbs)

Answer 124

Bevacizumab

Question 125

Block inhibitory pathways that normally dampen T-cell responses (Anticancer agents)

Answer 125

Immune checkpoint inhibitors

Question 126

Nivolumab, pembrolizumab, atezolizumab, ipilimumab (Anticancer agents)

Answer 126

Immune checkpoint inhibitors

Question 127

Targets PD-1 (Immune checkpoint inhibitors) (NP)

Answer 127

Nivolumab, Pembrolizumab

Question 128

Targets PD-L1 (Immune checkpoint inhibitors)

Answer 128

Atezolizumab

Question 129

Targets CTLA-4 (Immune checkpoint inhibitors)

Answer 129

Ipilimumab

Question 130

Block hormone production or receptors in hormone-sensitive tumors (Anticancer agents)

Answer 130

Hormonal agents

Question 131

ER modulator - breast (Hormonal agents)

Answer 131

Tamoxifen

Question 132

Aromatase inhibitor (Hormonal agents)

Answer 132

Anastrozole

Question 133

Androgen receptor blocker (Hormonal agents) (FB)

Answer 133

Flutamide, Bicalutamide

Question 134

GnRH agonist (Hormonal agents)

Answer 134

Leuprolide

Question 135

Generates free radicals; DNA strand breaks (Anticancer agents)

Answer 135

Bleomycin

Question 136

Has pulmonary fibrosis risk (Anticancer agents)

Answer 136

Bleomycin

Question 137

Depletes asparagine; leukemic cells die (Anticancer agents)

Answer 137

Asparaginase