Study Guide Questions- Exam 1 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Study Guide Questions- Exam 1 Deck (200):
1

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?

24 segments

2

What constitutes the spine?

the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae

3

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

the two-toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three-toed sloth

4

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

the ant bear and three-toed sloth

5

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

the manatee and two-toed sloth

6

What does the term "cervical" refer to?

the region of the neck

7

what does the term "lumbar" refer to?

The loin, the region between the rib and the hip

8

What does the term "coccyx" refer to?

A cuckoo birds' bill or cuckoo birds' beak

9

Which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?

gender variation or sexual dimorphism, ontogenetic variation, geographic or population based variation, and idiosyncratic variation.

10

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity variation is identified as which type of variation?

geographic variation or population based variation

11

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

70 cm or 28 in

12

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

60 cm or 25 in

13

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

12 cm or 5 in

14

What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?

28 cm or 11 in

15

What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?

18 cm or 7 in

16

What is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?

12 cm or 5 in

17

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

58 cm or 23 in

18

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

19

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

20

What specifically is responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc

21

What organ(s) are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

22

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

cervical- rectangular
thoracic- triangular
lumbar- reniform

23

What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim

24

What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

25

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

The basivertebral venous foramen

26

What is the name given to the large vessel exiting the back of the vertebral body?

the basivertebral vein

27

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

Cervical- posterolateral
Thoracic- posterior, slight lateral
Lumbar- posterior

28

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

the ligamentum flavum

29

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

accessory bone

30

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae see on an x-ray?

Shingling

31

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

Cervical- anterolateral
Thoracic- posterolateral
Lumbar- lateral

32

What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachia nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position.

33

What will cause the transverse process/apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward.

34

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

The superior articular facet

35

What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?

The inferior articular facet

36

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the ___________.

Pre-zygapophysis

37

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the ____________.

Post-zygapophysis

38

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

the inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis
the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis
the capsular ligament
the ligamentum flavum

39

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

40

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

41

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

the vertebral body of the segment above
the vertebral body of the segment below
the intervertebral disc
the posterior longitudinal ligament

42

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/apophysis?

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/apophysis and horizontal plane

43

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes/apophyses as seen on an x-ray?

Imbrication

44

What is the orientation of the spinous process/apophysis at each region of the spine?

cervical- slight angle inferiorly
thoracic- noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar- no inferior angle

45

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system and the meninges.

46

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column?

Cervical- triangular
Thoracic-oval
Lumbar- triangular
Sacrum- triangular

47

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each

Dura mater- tough mother
Arachnoid mater- spider mother
Pia mater- delicate or tender mother

48

Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis

Epidural space- b/w the vertebral foramen & dura mater.
Subdural space- b/w the dura mater & the arachnoid mater.
Subarachnoid space- b/w the arachnoid mater & the pia mater.

49

What are the contents of the epidural space?

Anterior & Posterior spinal canal artery & plexus,
A & P internal vertebral venous plexus,
Basivertebral vein,
Recurrent meningeal/ sinu-vertebral/ sinus vertebral nerve,
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments,
Ligamentum flavum,
Posterior longitudinal ligament.

50

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus,
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
Basivertebral vein,
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral Nerve,
Posterior longitudinal ligament,
Hofmann/anterior dura/meningovertebral ligaments.

51

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

posterior spinal canal A & V
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum

52

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

53

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

interstitial fluid

54

What is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?

Serous fluid

55

What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

Cerebrospinal Fluid

56

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

The vertebral artery

57

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

58

What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

right and left anterior spinal arteries,
right and left posterior spinal arteries,
& 4 communicating arteries

59

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

a median anterior spinal artery,
right and left posterior spinal arteries,
& 3 communicating arteries

60

Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

anterior radicular artery

61

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

posterior radicular artery

62

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

63

What arterial vasa corona branches supply about one-third of the spinal cord?

Pial perforating arteries

64

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

Anterior & Posterior Medullary Feeders

65

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

Pial veins

66

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

right and left anterior longitudinal veins,
right and left posterior longitudinal veins,
& 4 communicating veins

67

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

anterior radicular veins

68

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

posterior radicular vein

69

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

intervertebral veins

70

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligaments?

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus,
basivertebral vein

71

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

filum terminale internum

72

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

73

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

transverse

74

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

C3-T1 The Cervical Enlargement
T9-T12 The Lumbar/Lumbosacral enlargement

75

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

C6

76

What is the generic cord level of origin- vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra;
L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra;
L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra;
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

77

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

Conus medullaris

78

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

Typically S4, S5 & Co1

79

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

L1

80

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiograms?

cruciate anastomosis

81

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

cauda equina

82

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

filum terminale externum

83

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

coccygeal medullary vestige

84

What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

tethered cord syndrome

85

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

The SPINAL NERVE # relates to the UPPER segment # in the vertebral couple.
The RIB # related to the LOWER segment # in the vertebral couple.
i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

86

What are the four tissues of the human body?

epithelial, muscle, neural and connective tissue

87

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

osteoblast- form bone
osteocyte- maintain or nurture bone
osteoclast- remodel bone

88

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

glycosaminoglycans

89

What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

chondroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates, & hyaluronic acid

90

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

collagen type 1

91

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

hydroxyapatite

92

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as "living"?

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

93

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

intramembranous ossification

94

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

from the second to third month in utero

95

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

endochondral ossification

96

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

from the second to fifth month in utero

97

What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

the clavicle

98

What is the time of appearance of a primary center of ossification?

before birth

99

What is the time of appearance for a secondary center of ossification?

after birth

100

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

heterotopic bone

101

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

accessory bone

102

What are example of short bones?

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

103

What are examples of flat bones?

the parietal bone and sternum

104

What are examples of pneuamtic bones?

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal

105

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

patella and pisiform

106

What are the types of osseous elevations?

linear, rounded and sharp

107

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus

108

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

linear and rounded depressions

109

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

notch or incisure, groove and sulcus

110

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

the fovea and fossa

111

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

ostium or orifice and hiatus

112

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

foramen or canal

113

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

114

What are the categories of osseous facets?

flat facets and rounded facets

115

What is the definition of a flat osseous facet?

A relatively planar or slightly curvilinear surface on bone for osseous articulation

116

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

articular heads and articular condyles

117

What is the definition of osseous condyle?

a knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation

118

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

80 bones

119

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

the cranium

120

What is the name given to the top of the adult skull?

the calvaria or calva

121

Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in typical adult skeleton?

ribs 3-7

122

Which ribs are classified as atypical, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs in a typical adult skeleton?

ribs 1 and 2

123

Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

ribs 8 and 9

124

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

ribs 11 and 12

125

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

arthrology

126

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

syndesmology

127

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

128

What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis

129

What is the classification of a joint with a "nail-like" condition?

gomphosis

130

What is the classification of a joint with a "fissure-like" condition?

schindylesis

131

What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?

synchondrosis

132

What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

symphysis

133

What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?

malocclusion

134

What type of ossification pattern typically forms the true suture?

intramembranous ossification

135

What type of ossification pattern typically forms the false suture?

endochondral ossification

136

What is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?

cartilage joint

137

What is the classification of primary cartilage joints?

(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

138

What is the classification of a secondary cartilage joint?

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

139

What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

140

What type of cartilage is characteristic of a secondary joint?

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

141

Which example of an (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

symphysis menti

142

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

143

Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the ________?

capsular ligament

144

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

145

What is the generic function of ligaments?

stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

146

What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numberous in cervical zygapophysis and they monitor the joint "at rest"

147

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

They resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion.

148

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

resemble Golgi Tendon Organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion.

149

Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

150

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligaments of the spine

151

What are the three classifications of synovial membrane?

articular, vaginal, and bursal synovial membrane

152

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands & synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

153

What is the location of a subcutaneous synovial bursa?

bursa between integument and bone

154

What is the location of a subtendinous synovial bursa?

bursa between a tendon or muscle and bone or cartilage

155

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

are phagocytic

156

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

157

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

water, cells, collagen type II fibers and a proteoglycan gel

158

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

form a network for water retention

159

Cartilage is able to change shape due to compression, a characteristic known as ___________.

deformation

160

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

Cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

161

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

162

Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication

Weeping theory: implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film
Boosted theory: implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid
Boundary theory: implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is absorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed

163

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

164

What substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

hyaluronate

165

What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

lubricin

166

What is dialysate?

a separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane

167

What is a transudate?

any substance produced as a result of "sweating across" a membrane

168

What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint

169

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

170

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

(diarthrosis) hinge/ginglymus and diarthrosis (pivot/trochoid)

171

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar

172

What are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivod/trochoid joints?

median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

173

What is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints?

an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

174

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) bicondylar joints?

temperomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

175

what are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints?

Radiocarpal joint of the wrist,
metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand,
metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot,
and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

176

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints?

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

177

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints?

Femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and
the humerus- glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

178

At what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate?

the C3/C4 intervertebral disc at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage

179

What are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?

cervical, petrous, cavernous and cerebral

180

What is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid artery?

carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone

181

What accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid in the middle cranial fossa?

cavernous dural venous sinus

182

What branch of the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text?

the opthalmic artery

183

What are the segmental branches of the subclavian artery?

vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

184

What is the location of origin of the axillary artery?

at the outer border of the first rib

185

What is the segmental branch of the axillary artery?

Supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery

186

What branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text?

posterior intercostal and subcostal arteries

187

What parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text?

lumbar and median sacral arteries

188

What branches of the internal iliac were stressed in the text?

Iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries

189

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebrae?

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

190

What vessels form the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein?

superficial temporal and (internal) maxillary vein

191

What will the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?

the pterygoid venous plexus and the cavernous dural venous sinus

192

What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries?

remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema

193

What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?

They begin as blind-ended spaces, have a greater lumenal diameter than blood capillaries, are more variable in lumenal diameter than blood capillaries and are more layered in plexus arrangement than blood capillaries.

194

How do they lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins?

more numerous, possess more valves, and anastomose more frequently than veins.

195

What parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?

the right side of the head, neck and thoracic parietal wall, as well as the right upper extremity, right lung and convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver.

196

What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?

L2 from the cisternal chyli

197

What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?

Peyer's patches of the small intestine and the tonsils

198

What are the functions of lymph nodules?

lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line) and to aid in the immune response

199

What is identified in the lymph node cortex?

solitary lymph nodes

200

What is the function of lymph nodes?

they primarily filter lymph but also are involved in lymphocytopoiesis and they participate in the immune response.