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lower 3 Flashcards

(75 cards)

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1
Q

What motions occur at the knee joint?

A

Flexion, extension, internal rotation, external rotation.

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2
Q

What does genu valgum mean?

A

Knock-knees; increased medial stress and lateral compression, higher ACL injury risk.

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3
Q

What does genu varum mean?

A

Bowlegs; increased lateral stress and medial compression.

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4
Q

What does genu recurvatum mean?

A

Hyperextended knees; increases anterior compression and posterior stretching forces.

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5
Q

Function of the ACL?

A

Prevents anterior translation of tibia on femur and limits rotation.

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6
Q

MOI for ACL sprain?

A

Rotation on planted foot, cutting, sudden deceleration, hyperextension, or valgus blow.

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7
Q

S/S of ACL sprain?

A

“Pop” sound, immediate pain, rapid swelling, instability, buckling, + anterior drawer and Lachman test.

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8
Q

Treatment for ACL sprain?

A

RICE, immobilize, refer to physician, surgery vs non-surgical rehab.

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9
Q

Prevention for ACL sprain?

A

Strong hamstrings and quads, good flexibility, possible bracing.

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10
Q

Rehab length for ACL repair?

A

Usually 4–12 months.

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11
Q

What grafts are commonly used in ACL surgery?

A

Patellar tendon or hamstring graft.

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12
Q

What is the “unhappy triad”?

A

ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus injury together.

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13
Q

Function of the PCL?

A

Prevents posterior translation of tibia on femur.

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14
Q

MOI for PCL sprain?

A

Falling on a flexed knee, blow to anterior tibia, hyperextension, or valgus blow.

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15
Q

S/S of PCL sprain?

A

Posterior knee pain, tenderness, swelling, + posterior drawer, + posterior sag.

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16
Q

Treatment for PCL sprain?

A

RICE, splint, refer, possible surgery.

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17
Q

Prevention for PCL sprain?

A

Maintain strong, flexible hamstrings and quads.

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18
Q

Function of the MCL?

A

Prevents valgus (inward) stress at the knee.

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19
Q

MOI for MCL sprain?

A

Valgus blow or external rotation of the foot.

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20
Q

S/S of MCL sprain?

A

Medial pain, tenderness, instability, + valgus stress test, swelling varies.

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21
Q

Treatment for MCL sprain?

A

Rest, rehab, brace if needed, rarely surgery.

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22
Q

Typical healing time for MCL sprains?

A

Grade I: 1–3 weeks; Grade II: 3–4 weeks; Grade III: 4–6 weeks.

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23
Q

Function of the LCL?

A

Prevents varus (outward) stress at the knee.

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24
Q

MOI for LCL sprain?

A

Varus blow or twisting.

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25
S/S of LCL sprain?
Lateral knee pain, little swelling, + varus stress test.
26
Treatment for LCL sprain?
RICE, splint, rest, rehab.
27
What structure helps protect against varus stress besides the LCL?
Iliotibial band (ITB).
28
MOI for meniscal injury?
Rotation on planted foot, flexion, or valgus force.
29
S/S of meniscal injury?
Joint line pain, clicking, locking, giving out, swelling, + McMurray, + Appley compression/distraction.
30
Which meniscus is injured more often and why?
Medial meniscus; it’s attached to the MCL and capsule, making it less mobile.
31
Treatment for meniscal injury?
RICE, rehab, or surgery if locking occurs.
32
Which part of the meniscus heals better and why?
Outer rim because of better blood supply.
33
MOI for knee dislocation (tibiofemoral)?
Severe torque or hyperextension.
34
S/S of knee dislocation?
Pain, deformity, swelling, decreased pulses, numbness/tingling, ↓ function.
35
Treatment for knee dislocation?
Do not reduce, splint, call EMS, refer for imaging/surgery, monitor for shock.
36
What artery and nerve are most at risk in knee dislocation?
Popliteal artery and peroneal/tibial nerves.
37
MOI for patellar dislocation/subluxation?
Quads contract while foot is planted, thigh IR with tibial ER, causing patella to move laterally.
38
S/S of patellar dislocation vs subluxation?
Dislocation: pain, deformity, swelling, pop. Subluxation: pain, swelling, no deformity.
39
Treatment for patellar dislocation/subluxation?
Do not reduce, splint, refer, strengthen VMO, brace or tape.
40
Prevention of patellar dislocation?
Strengthen VMO and maintain balanced quad flexibility.
41
What is chondromalacia patella?
Softening/deterioration of cartilage under the patella from poor tracking or subluxation.
42
S/S of chondromalacia patella?
Anterior knee pain, grinding, crepitus, pseudo-locking, + patellar grind, “theater sign.”
43
Treatment for chondromalacia patella?
Ice, rest, balanced quad strength, flexibility, sleeve, taping, surgery if needed.
44
MOI for patellar tendinitis (“jumper’s knee”)?
Overuse of knee extensors (quads, patella, tendon).
45
Stages of patellar tendinitis?
I: Pain after activity, II: Pain during and after, III: Constant pain and ↓ function.
46
Treatment for patellar tendinitis?
Stretching, massage, eccentric exercises, sleeve or Chopat strap, modify activity.
47
MOI for patellar tendon rupture?
Severe contraction or chronic tendinitis.
48
S/S of patellar tendon rupture?
Pain, pop, swelling, deformity, inability to extend leg or contract quads.
49
Treatment for patellar tendon rupture?
Ice, immobilize, refer for surgery, long rehab.
50
MOI for bursitis in the knee?
Overuse or direct contact, often from kneeling.
51
S/S of knee bursitis?
Pain, major localized swelling (not joint effusion).
52
Treatment for bursitis?
RICE, ultrasound, pad, aspirate, steroid injection if needed.
53
MOI for Osgood-Schlatter disease?
Apophysitis from tendon pulling on tibial tubercle in growing teens.
54
S/S of Osgood-Schlatter?
Pain and swelling at tibial tuberosity, tenderness, enlarged bump, pain ↑ with activity.
55
Treatment for Osgood-Schlatter?
RICE, pad area, stretch quads/hams/calf, strengthen quads/hams, modify activity.
56
Long-term outlook for Osgood-Schlatter?
Usually resolves with growth, but may cause bony prominence.
57
MOI for IT band friction syndrome?
Friction over lateral femoral condyle due to tight IT band.
58
S/S of IT band friction syndrome?
Lateral knee pain with activity (esp. stairs/hills), clicking, + Ober, + Noble, + Renee tests.
59
Treatment for IT band friction syndrome?
Stretch ITB, foam roll, correct mechanics, modify activity.
60
What conditions should be ruled out when suspecting ITB syndrome?
LCL sprain or lateral meniscus injury.
61
What is thermoregulation?
The body’s ability to maintain a stable internal temperature (around 37°C or 98.6°F) despite external environmental changes.
62
What system controls thermoregulation?
The hypothalamus — it receives temperature info from skin and blood, then triggers heat loss or heat production responses.
63
What are the four main mechanisms of heat exchange?
Radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation.
64
Describe radiation.
Transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, like sunlight or radiant heat from surfaces.
65
Describe conduction.
Direct transfer of heat between two objects in contact — for example, placing an ice pack on the skin.
66
Describe convection.
Transfer of heat through moving air or water — for example, fanning an athlete or immersion in cold water.
67
Describe evaporation.
Transfer of heat when sweat on the skin turns to vapor; most efficient heat loss method.
68
How does humidity affect evaporation?
High humidity decreases sweat evaporation, trapping heat and increasing risk of heat illness.
69
What is the heat balance equation?
S = M ± R ± C ± K − E, where S = stored heat, M = metabolic heat, R = radiation, C = convection, K = conduction, E = evaporation.
70
What happens when metabolic heat exceeds heat loss?
Body temperature rises, leading to hyperthermia and potential heat illness.
71
How does the body cool itself when overheated?
Vasodilation increases skin blood flow and sweating begins to enhance heat loss through evaporation.
72
How does the body warm itself when cold?
Vasoconstriction reduces skin blood flow and shivering increases metabolic heat production.
73
What type of heat transfer occurs in cold-water immersion for heat stroke treatment?
Conduction and convection — cold water draws heat from the body as it moves around the skin.
74
Why are the head and neck important for thermoregulation?
They dissipate a large portion of body heat; covering them increases risk of overheating.
75
Why are individuals with high BMI or high muscle mass more at risk for heat illness?
They produce more metabolic heat and have less surface area for heat dissipation.
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