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Flashcards in Revision 2 Deck (198)
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31

what causes syndenhams

infection with group A beta haemolytic strep causes rheumatic fever- when infected antibodies from against basal ganglia and cause syndehams

32

clear CSF with normal opening pressure
oligoclonal bands present

MS

33

clear csf with normal opening pressure
lymphocytes present
high protein
normal glucose

viral

34

what are the signs of IIH

high CSF opening pressure
bilateral papilloedema (can progress to blindness)

35

what is the management for IIH

1st line weight loss
2nd line acetalozamide
3rd line shunt

36

is there CSF in the subarachonoid space

yes

37

yellow tinge in CSF 12 hours after haemorrhage = what type of haemorrhage

SAH

38

can SAH be spontaneous or traumatic

both

39

is viral meningitis more/less intense than bacterial/ TB meningitis

less intense

40

what are all meningitis' treated as until proven otherwise

bacterial

41

what is the Tx for viral meningitis

supportive

42

cloudy CSF
elevated opening pressure
neutrophils (aka polymorphs/ polymorph pleocytosis) present
high protein
low glucose

bacterial meningitis

43

opaque CSF
if left to settle forms a fibrin web
elevated opening pressure
lymphocytes present
high protein
low glucose

TB meningitis

44

best initial test to diagnose:
alzheimers

MMSE
-will have impaired recall
-lose short term memory
-retain long term memory
-eventually become disorientated to time, place and person

45

best initial test to diagnose:
frontotemporal dementia

MRI
-will show focal atrophy in frontal and superior temporal lobes

46

what is picks disease

FTD

47

how will FTD present

behavioural symptoms, self neglect, language (lose vocab)

48

what is FTD associated with

MND

49

how is FTD different from huntingtons

not inherited
has no chorea

50

best initial test to diagnose:
-vascular dementia

MRI
-shows long term damage from infarcts

51

what is the classic presentation of vascular dementia

step wise cognitive deterioration - result of multiple infarcts

52

which anti-epileptic drug:
used in pregnancy
SEs: rash, SJS

lamotrigine
(least teratogenic, given with folic acid)

53

which anti-epileptic drug:
used for treatment of absence seizures, blocks the thalamic T type Ca2+ channels

ethosuximide

54

what are absence seizures

usually happen in children
go completely blank
wont move/ remember it then snap out of it

55

which anti-epileptic drug:
Na+ channel activation
increase GABA concentration
should be avoided in women of childbearing age
used for majority of generalised seizures
SE: weight gain, alopecia
is a P450 enzyme inhibitor

sodium valoprate
(highly teratogenic)

56

what is a simple partial seizure

mini electrical disturbance in part of the brain
will have awareness of what is happening
can be motor (frontal lobe), visual (occipital lobe), sensory (parietal)

57

what is a complex partial seizure

involves a bigger bit if the brain
may have aura- hear/ see feel something abnormal/ will have de ja ve (with itself can be seizure)
then loss of awareness
confusion/ drowsiness after seizure = the post ecter phase

(aura, loss of awareness, post ecter ohase)

58

what type of seizures is an absence seizure

generalised

59

what is the tonic phase of a seizure

stiffening of whole body, stiff, rolling eyes back

60

what is the clonic phase of seizure

jerky movements