EENT Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

What aspect of the comprehensive eye examine is CI in a pt with acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

pupillary dilation

It may worsen the pupil block preventing the aqueous fluid from entering the anterior chamber.

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2
Q

What am I? What is the management?

A

hyphema

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3
Q

What are the different grades of hyphema?

A
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4
Q

What is the Pulfrich phenomenon? What dx is it associated with?

A

Objects moving in a straight line appear to be moving in a curved trajectory.

This can occur in optic neuritis

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5
Q

What eye condition is MS associated with?

A

optic neuritis

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6
Q

Erythroplakia will come back on bx as _______

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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7
Q

Retinal detachment occurs when the inner layers of the retina separate from which structure?

A

choroid

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8
Q

High or low frequency hear loss is associated with presbycusis?

A

lose ability to hear HIGH frequency

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9
Q

What dx?

A

Pterygium

because it crosses over the cornea

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic retropharyngeal abscesses?

A

tuberculosis

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11
Q

retropharyngeal abscess is young children, what imaging?

A

CT scan with IV contrast

because a lateral neck xray is best taken during inspiration with the neck held in normal extension, which may be unreliable for the pediatric population

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12
Q

What is the underlying cause of amaurosis fugax?

A

carotid artery disease

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13
Q

At approximately what age do the Eustachian tubes reach adult orientation?

A

7 years old

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14
Q

What structure of the ear contains auditory sensory receptors?

A

cochlea

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of blindness in the world?

A

cataracts

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16
Q

Which bacteria are most closely associated with dental caries?

A

streptococcus mutans

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17
Q

What is the hallmark symptoms of cholesteatoma?

A

Painless otorrhea

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18
Q

What are cholesteatomas composed of?

A

keratinized, desquamated collection of epithelial cells located in the middle ear.

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19
Q

On which part of the ear are primary acquired cholesteatomas most likely to occur?

A

Pars flaccida.

20
Q

Which cranial nerve is most commonly involved in malignant otitis externa?

A

Cranial nerve VII

21
Q

hutchinson sign, what branch of what nerve is affected?

A

ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve

22
Q

What is the name of the glands that are superior to the tonsils in the soft palate?

23
Q

orbital floor fracture, what 2 structures are also likely to get damaged? What decreased ability will be present in the pt?

A

inferior rectus muscle entrapment -> inability to look up

infraorbital nerve -> decreased sensation over the right anteromedial cheek

24
Q

What should a pt with an orbital floor fracture NOT do?

A

do NOT blow their nose (or anything that increases pressure in the head)

25
Chronic dry eye that has already tried and failed conservative measuring and eye lubricants. What is the next medication to rx?
cyclosporine eye drops
26
What is a ranula? Describe the appearance. What is the tx?
a pseudocyst or mucocele that forms on the floor of the mouth. Ranulas can be congenital, occurring from an obstruction in a sublingual gland, or acquired, occurring after trauma to the oral cavity. This results in mucus from the sublingual gland being secreted into the tissues around the gland, forming the mass. Ranulas are painless, slow growing, thin walled, blue in color, and translucent. There is typically no neck mass or limitation in motion of the head or neck. Surgical resection is the mainstay of treatment for a ranula.
27
constant ottorhea or rhinorrhea that may be associated with a salty, metallic taste. What dx?
basilar skull fracture
28
A 68-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of complete painless vision loss. Eye exam reveals a pale retina with a red circle. What dx?
central retinal artery occlusion cherry red spot
29
What is the difference between dacryoadenitis and dacryocystitis?
30
What is the MC pathogen for otitis-conjunctivitis syndrome?
nontypeable H influenzae
31
What abx regimen is appropriate for epiglottis?
IV ceftriaxone and vanc
32
What is the abx regimen for retropharyngeal abscess?
ampicillin-sulbactam alone OR ceftriaxone plus metronidazole
33
Which of the following air-filled structures does the middle ear communicate with anteriorly?
Eustachian tubes
34
What are the three auditory ossicles?
Malleus, incus, and stapes
35
What is the correct passage of sound waves as they travel from the external auditory canal to the pons in the hearing conduction pathway?
TM, ossicle, oval window, cochlea, vestibulocohlear nerve
36
unilateral, progressive tinnitus with sensorineural loss. What should you do next?
order MRI need to rule out acoustic neuroma
37
What is another name for vestibular schwannoma?
acoustic neuroma
38
What is the MC cause of peritonsillar abscess?
Group A strep strep pyogenes
39
Presentation will have deep otalgia and a persistent, malodorous aural odor. Granulations will be seen in the canal. What dx? What pathogen?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the typical organism responsible for necrotizing otitis externa
40
What is a common complication of Bell's palsy?
keratitis
41
left eye redness developing over the past day. She has mild tearing and reports no pain, change in vision, or discharge from the eye. Hx of RA? What dx?
Episcleritis
42
What is the treatment of episcleritis?
lubricating eye drops
43
What is the triad of symptoms associated with Meniere Disease?
episodic vertigo sensourieneural hearing loss tinnitus
44
Which regards to timing, what is the difference between Meniere Dz and acute labyrinthitis?
acute labyrinthitis is generally a single episode that can last for DAYS rather than recurrent shorter episodes like in MD
45
define lagophthalmos
incomplete or defective closure of the eyelid
46
What are these spots called? What dx is it associated with?
Night blindness is usually the earliest symptom and may be accompanied by conjunctival dryness and the development of small, white patches on the conjunctivae known as Bitot spots.
47