OLA Autoflight

Question 1

What does the FMGS comprise?

Answer 1

2 FMGCs
2 MCDUs
1 FCU
2 FACs

Question 2

What are the four modes of operation of the FMGS?

Answer 2

Dual
Independent
Single
Back up navigation

Question 3

What is the normal mode of operation of the FMGS and how does it work?

Answer 3

Dual mode

Both FMGS independently perform computations and exchange data on a crosstalk bus

Question 4

What causes the FMGS to operate in independent mode?

Answer 4

When there is a major mismatch in database or program compatibility between the two FMGCs

Question 5

How does FMGS independent mode work?

Answer 5

Each FMGC works independently and control only their on-side peripherals

Question 6

What causes the FMGS to operate in single mode?

Answer 6

Failure of the other FMGS

Question 7

What causes the FMGS to operate in back up navigation mode?

Answer 7

Failure of both FMGCs

Question 8

When does the INIT B page become unavailable?

Answer 8

15 seconds after first engine start

Question 9

What happens if the database is changed during the flight?

Answer 9

All flight plans and stored data will be deleted

Question 10

If the EXPED button is pushed, what speed will the aircraft fly at if climbing?

Answer 10

Green dot

Question 11

If the EXPED button is pushed, what speed will the aircraft fly at if descending?

Answer 11

340kt/M0.8

Question 12

What are the four main functions of the flight management section of the FMGC?

Answer 12

Navigation (Position computation and navaid tuning)

Flight Planning (Lateral and vertical)

Performance Optimization (Predictions)

Display Management (PFD, ND, MCDU)

Question 13

What is the mix IRS position?

Answer 13

The weighted average position based on the three IRSs

Question 14

How is the mix IRS position refined?

Answer 14

With data from the GPIRS position

Question 15

What are the general nav accuracy requirements for en route area?

Answer 15

2.0nm

Question 16

What are the general nav accuracy requirements for terminal area?

Answer 16

1.0nm

Question 17

What are the general nav accuracy requirements for approach area with GPS?

Answer 17

0.3nm

Question 18

What are the general nav accuracy requirements for approach area without GPS?

Answer 18

0.5nm

Question 19

What does the flight guidance portion of the FMGC control?

Answer 19

Operation of the flight directors, autopilot and autothrust system

Question 20

When is the vertical yaw bar displayed on the PFD?

Answer 20

When the aircraft is below 30ft, if a LOC signal is available

Question 21

What happens to the FDs if one FMGC fails?

Answer 21

Both FDs are generated from the remaining FMGC, and 1FD1 or 2FD2 is announced on FMA

Question 22

When are flight directors removed for high pitch?

Answer 22

Above 25 degrees nose up

Question 23

When are flight directors removed for low pitch?

Answer 23

Below 13 degrees nose down

Question 24

When are flight directors removed for bank?

Answer 24

Greater than 45 degrees

Question 25

When can AP be engaged after takeoff?

Answer 25

After 5 seconds and above 100ft AGL

Question 26

What is the benefit of pressing the AP disconnect button twice when disconnecting?

Answer 26

It silences/extinguishes aural and visual warnings and removes the ECAM message

Question 27

What happens if the A/THR disconnect pushbutton on the thrust lever is pressed for over 15 seconds?

Answer 27

Autothrust is disconnected for the remainder of the flight

Question 28

When is TOO STEEP PATH displayed in the flight plan?

Answer 28

When a descent segment between two constraints is predicted to be impossible to satisfy with half speedbrakes extended

Question 29

When does 'soft altitude' mode engage in the cruise?

Answer 29

2 minutes after reaching the planned cruise altitude

Question 30

What does 'soft altitude' mode do?

Answer 30

Allows the aircraft to deviate +/-50ft in order to maintain the cruise mach, thereby minimising thrust variations

Question 31

What happens if you press EXPED when already in expedite mode?

Answer 31

Nothing

Question 32

What speed does SRS mode target with two engines?

Answer 32

V2+10kt

Question 33

What speed does SRS target single engine?

Answer 33

V2 or the current speed, whichever is greater

Question 34

What is the SRS maximum pitch attitude?

Answer 34

18 degrees nose up

Question 35

What is the SRS minimum rate of climb?

Answer 35

120fpm

Question 36

In terms of groundspeed mini, how is Vapp calculated?

Answer 36

It is the higher of VLS + 5kts or VLS + 1/3 tower reported headwind to a maximum of 15kt

Question 37

What is the minimum height for AP engagement after take off or go around?

Answer 37

100ft AGL

Question 38

What is the minimum height at which AP must be disconnected if CAT1 is displayed on FMA?

Answer 38

160ft AGL

Question 39

What is the minimum height at which AP must be disconnected for a straight in, non-precision approach in FINAL APP?

Answer 39

250ft

Question 40

What is the minimum height at which AP must be disconnected for a straight in, non-precision approach in V/S or FPA?

Answer 40

250ft

Question 41

If a CAT 2 approach is made, what is the latest point to disconnect if a manual landing is carried out?

Answer 41

80ft