1
Q
Define cell wall synthesis.
A
The process by which bacteria create their protective outer layer, essential for survival.
2
Q
True or false: Beta-lactam antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis.
A
TRUE
Examples include penicillin and cephalosporins.
3
Q
Fill in the blank: Vancomycin is effective against _______ bacteria.
A
Gram-positive
4
Q
What is the role of peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls?
A
It provides structural support and rigidity to the cell wall.
5
Q
Name a mechanism of action for bacitracin.
A
It interferes with the transport of peptidoglycan precursors.
6
Q
What type of bacteria does penicillin primarily target?
A
Gram-positive bacteria
7
Q
True or false: Teichoic acids are found in Gram-negative bacteria.
A
FALSE
Teichoic acids are characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria.
8
Q
Fill in the blank: Cyclic lipopeptides disrupt cell wall synthesis by forming _______.
A
pores
9
Q
What is the effect of inhibiting cell wall synthesis on bacteria?
A
It leads to cell lysis and death due to osmotic pressure.
10
Q
Define glycopeptide antibiotics.
A
A class of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis in bacteria, primarily Gram-positive.
11
Q
Define antibacterial drugs that inhibit protein synthesis.
A
Medications that target bacterial ribosomes to prevent protein production.
12
Q
True or false: Tetracyclines are a class of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis.
A
TRUE
Tetracyclines include doxycycline and minocycline.
13
Q
Fill in the blank: Macrolides inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the _______ subunit.
A
50S
14
Q
What is the mechanism of action for aminoglycosides?
A
They bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit, causing misreading of mRNA.
15
Q
Define chloramphenicol.
A
An antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis by blocking peptide bond formation.
16
Q
True or false: Linezolid is effective against Gram-negative bacteria.
A
FALSE
Linezolid primarily targets Gram-positive bacteria.
17
Q
What do lincosamides primarily target?
A
They inhibit protein synthesis in anaerobic bacteria and some Gram-positive bacteria.
18
Q
Fill in the blank: Streptogramins are used to treat infections caused by _______.
A
Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus
19
Q
What is a common side effect of protein synthesis inhibitors?
A
Gastrointestinal disturbances, such as nausea and diarrhea.
20
Q
Define bacteriostatic antibiotics.
A
Antibiotics that inhibit bacterial growth without killing the bacteria.
21
Q
Define plasma membrane disruption.
A
The process where antibacterial drugs compromise the integrity of bacterial cell membranes.
22
Q
True or false: Polymyxins target bacterial plasma membranes.
A
TRUE
Polymyxins, like colistin, disrupt membrane integrity in Gram-negative bacteria.
23
Q
Fill in the blank: Daptomycin is effective against _______ bacteria.
A
Gram-positive
24
Q
What is the mechanism of daptomycin?
A
It inserts into the bacterial membrane, causing depolarization and cell death.
25
Define **cationic peptides**.
Antimicrobial peptides that disrupt bacterial membranes by interacting with negatively charged lipids.
26
True or false: **Bacitracin** affects only Gram-negative bacteria.
FALSE
## Footnote
Bacitracin primarily targets Gram-positive bacteria by inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
27
What is the role of **lipopolysaccharides** in membrane disruption?
They are components of Gram-negative bacteria that can be targeted by certain drugs.
28
Fill in the blank: **Antibiotics** that disrupt membranes often lead to _______ of the cell.
lysis
29
Define **membrane-active agents**.
Substances that alter membrane permeability, leading to bacterial cell death.
30
True or false: **Antifungal drugs** can disrupt bacterial membranes.
TRUE
## Footnote
Some antifungals, like amphotericin B, can affect bacterial membranes as well.
31
Define **nucleic acid synthesis inhibition**.
The process of blocking the production of DNA or RNA in bacteria.
32
True or false: **Quinolones** inhibit DNA gyrase.
TRUE
## Footnote
Quinolones are effective against a variety of bacterial infections.
33
Fill in the blank: **Rifampicin** inhibits _______ synthesis.
RNA
34
What is the role of **DNA gyrase**?
It introduces negative supercoils into DNA, aiding replication.
35
Name a class of antibiotics that inhibit **RNA polymerase**.
Rifamycins
36
True or false: **Sulfonamides** directly inhibit nucleic acid synthesis.
FALSE
## Footnote
Sulfonamides inhibit folic acid synthesis, indirectly affecting nucleic acids.
37
What is the mechanism of action for **fluoroquinolones**?
They inhibit bacterial DNA replication by targeting DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV.
38
Fill in the blank: **Trimethoprim** inhibits _______ synthesis.
Dihydrofolate reductase
39
Define **antimetabolites** in the context of nucleic acid synthesis.
Substances that mimic normal substrates, disrupting metabolic pathways.
40
What is the effect of **nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors** on bacteria?
They prevent bacterial growth and replication, leading to cell death.
41
Define **antibacterial drugs**.
Medications used to treat bacterial infections by inhibiting bacterial growth or killing bacteria.
42
True or false: **Inhibition of metabolic pathways** is a mechanism of antibacterial action.
TRUE
## Footnote
This includes targeting pathways like folate synthesis and cell wall synthesis.
43
Fill in the blank: **Sulfonamides** inhibit the synthesis of _______.
Folate
44
What is the role of **penicillin** in bacterial metabolism?
It inhibits cell wall synthesis, leading to bacterial cell lysis.
45
Define **bacteriostatic**.
Antibacterial agents that inhibit bacterial growth without killing them.
46
What metabolic pathway does **trimethoprim** inhibit?
It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, affecting folate synthesis.
47
True or false: **Antibiotics** can target human metabolic pathways.
FALSE
## Footnote
Antibiotics specifically target bacterial pathways, not human metabolism.
48
Fill in the blank: **Beta-lactam antibiotics** disrupt _______ synthesis.
Cell wall
49
What is the mechanism of action for **macrolides**?
They inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial ribosome.
50
Define **folate synthesis inhibitors**.
Drugs that block the production of folate, essential for bacterial growth.
51
Define **antifungal agents**.
Drugs used to treat fungal infections by targeting fungal structures.
52
True or false: **Chitin** is a component of fungal cell walls.
TRUE
## Footnote
Chitin provides structural support and is not found in animal cells.
53
Fill in the blank: **Ergosterol** is a key component of _______.
Fungal cell membranes
54
What is the action of **azoles**?
They inhibit the synthesis of ergosterol in fungal membranes.
55
Name a class of antifungal that targets **beta-glucans**.
Echinocandins
56
True or false: **Polyene** antifungals disrupt fungal DNA.
FALSE
## Footnote
Polyenes, like amphotericin B, bind to ergosterol, disrupting cell membranes.
57
What do **allylamines** inhibit?
The enzyme squalene epoxidase in ergosterol biosynthesis.
58
Fill in the blank: **Caspofungin** is an example of a _______.
Echinocandin
59
Define **fungicidal**.
Agents that kill fungi, as opposed to merely inhibiting their growth.
60
True or false: **Griseofulvin** is effective against systemic fungal infections.
FALSE
## Footnote
Griseofulvin is primarily used for superficial fungal infections.
61
Define **ergosterol**.
A sterol found in fungal cell membranes, crucial for membrane integrity.
62
True or false: **Azoles** inhibit ergosterol synthesis.
TRUE
## Footnote
Azoles, like fluconazole, block the enzyme lanosterol demethylase.
63
What is the mechanism of **polyene** antifungals?
They bind to ergosterol, disrupting the fungal cell membrane.
64
Fill in the blank: **Amphotericin B** is a type of _______.
polyene antifungal
65
What do **echinocandins** target?
They inhibit the synthesis of beta-glucan in the fungal cell wall.
66
True or false: **Nystatin** is used systemically.
FALSE
## Footnote
Nystatin is typically used topically due to toxicity when ingested.
67
Define **fungicidal**.
Agents that kill fungi, as opposed to merely inhibiting their growth.
68
What is the role of **lanosterol** in ergosterol synthesis?
Lanosterol is a precursor in the biosynthetic pathway for ergosterol.
69
Fill in the blank: **Fluconazole** is an example of a _______.
azole antifungal
70
What is the primary use of **caspofungin**?
It is used to treat invasive fungal infections by inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
71
Define **antifungal drugs** that inhibit cell wall synthesis.
Drugs that target the synthesis of fungal cell walls, disrupting their integrity and function.
72
True or false: **Echinocandins** are a class of antifungal drugs.
TRUE
## Footnote
Echinocandins include caspofungin, micafungin, and anidulafungin.
73
Fill in the blank: **Chitin** is a key component of the fungal _______.
cell wall
74
What is the mechanism of action for **echinocandins**?
They inhibit the enzyme 1,3-beta-D-glucan synthase, affecting cell wall integrity.
75
Name one **side effect** of echinocandins.
Possible side effects include liver enzyme elevation and infusion-related reactions.
76
True or false: **Amphotericin B** inhibits cell wall synthesis.
FALSE
## Footnote
Amphotericin B targets cell membranes, not cell walls.
77
What type of fungi are **echinocandins** primarily effective against?
They are primarily effective against Candida and Aspergillus species.
78
Define **1,3-beta-D-glucan**.
A polysaccharide that is a major component of the fungal cell wall.
79
Fill in the blank: **Caspofungin** is an example of an _______ drug.
echinocandin
80
What is a common use for **echinocandins**?
They are commonly used to treat invasive candidiasis and aspergillosis.
81
Define **fungal cell wall**.
A rigid structure composed mainly of chitin, providing shape and protection to fungal cells.
82
True or false: Fungal drugs target **human cell membranes**.
FALSE
## Footnote
Fungal drugs specifically target structures unique to fungi, like ergosterol in their membranes.
83
Fill in the blank: **Ergosterol** is to fungi as _______ is to humans.
Cholesterol
84
What is the role of **chitin** in fungi?
Chitin provides structural support and rigidity to the fungal cell wall.
85
Name a common **fungal drug** that targets the cell wall.
Caspofungin
86
True or false: Fungal cell membranes contain **cholesterol**.
FALSE
## Footnote
Fungal membranes contain ergosterol, which is different from cholesterol found in human cells.
87
What is the primary target of **azoles** in fungal cells?
Azoles inhibit the synthesis of ergosterol, disrupting the cell membrane.
88
Fill in the blank: **Polyenes** bind to _______ in fungal membranes.
Ergosterol
89
Define **caspofungin**.
A class of antifungal drugs that inhibit the synthesis of glucan in the fungal cell wall.
90
What is the significance of targeting **fungal structures**?
It allows for selective toxicity, minimizing harm to human cells.
91
Define **antiviral drug entry**.
The process by which antiviral drugs penetrate host cells to exert their effects.
92
True or false: **Attachment** is the first step in viral entry.
TRUE
## Footnote
Attachment involves the virus binding to specific receptors on the host cell surface.
93
What is the role of **viral receptors** in antiviral drug entry?
Viral receptors facilitate the binding of viruses to host cells, enabling entry.
94
Fill in the blank: Antiviral drugs can block **_________** to prevent viral entry.
receptor interactions
95
Define **fusion inhibitors**.
Drugs that prevent the fusion of viral and host cell membranes, blocking entry.
96
What is **endocytosis** in the context of viral entry?
A cellular process where the host cell engulfs the virus, allowing entry.
97
True or false: **Nucleoside analogs** directly inhibit viral attachment.
FALSE
## Footnote
Nucleoside analogs primarily interfere with viral replication, not attachment.
98
What are **entry inhibitors**?
Antiviral agents that block the entry of viruses into host cells.
99
Fill in the blank: **_________** is a method used by some viruses to enter cells.
Membrane fusion
100
Define **antiviral drug mechanism**.
The specific biochemical interaction through which an antiviral drug exerts its effects.
101
Define **nucleic acid synthesis**.
The process of creating nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, from nucleotides.
102
True or false: **Antiviral drugs** can inhibit nucleic acid synthesis.
TRUE
## Footnote
They target viral replication by disrupting nucleic acid production.
103
Fill in the blank: **Nucleotide** consists of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a _______.
Nitrogenous base
104
What is the role of **reverse transcriptase** in antiviral therapy?
It synthesizes DNA from RNA, crucial for retroviral replication.
105
Define **nucleoside analogs**.
Compounds that mimic nucleosides, used to disrupt viral nucleic acid synthesis.
106
What is the function of **RNA polymerase** in viral replication?
It synthesizes RNA from a DNA template during viral replication.
107
True or false: **Zidovudine** is an example of a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
TRUE
## Footnote
Zidovudine is used to treat HIV infections.
108
Fill in the blank: **Antisense oligonucleotides** are designed to bind to _______.
Complementary RNA sequences
109
What is the significance of **polymerase inhibitors** in antiviral drugs?
They block viral polymerases, preventing nucleic acid synthesis.
110
Define **viral replication cycle**.
The series of steps a virus undergoes to reproduce within a host cell.
111
Define **nucleic acid synthesis**.
The process of creating nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, from nucleotides.
112
True or false: **Antiviral drugs** can inhibit nucleic acid synthesis.
TRUE
## Footnote
They target viral replication by disrupting nucleic acid production.
113
Fill in the blank: **Nucleotide** consists of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a _______.
Nitrogenous base
114
What is the role of **reverse transcriptase** in antiviral therapy?
It synthesizes DNA from RNA, crucial for retroviral replication.
115
Define **nucleoside analogs**.
Compounds that mimic nucleosides, used to disrupt viral nucleic acid synthesis.
116
What is the function of **RNA polymerase** in viral replication?
It synthesizes RNA from a DNA template during viral replication.
117
True or false: **Zidovudine** is an example of a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
TRUE
## Footnote
Zidovudine is used to treat HIV infections.
118
Fill in the blank: **Antisense oligonucleotides** are designed to bind to _______.
Complementary RNA sequences
119
What is the significance of **polymerase inhibitors** in antiviral drugs?
They block viral polymerases, preventing nucleic acid synthesis.
120
Define **viral replication cycle**.
The series of steps a virus undergoes to reproduce within a host cell.
121
Define **protease inhibitors**.
Drugs that block the activity of viral proteases, preventing viral replication.
122
True or false: **HIV protease inhibitors** can reduce viral load.
TRUE
## Footnote
They are effective in managing HIV infection by lowering the amount of virus in the body.
123
Fill in the blank: **Ritonavir** is a type of _______.
protease inhibitor
124
What is the primary function of **antiviral drugs**?
To inhibit the replication of viruses in the host.
125
True or false: **Enzyme inhibition** can lead to viral resistance.
TRUE
## Footnote
Over time, viruses may mutate and become resistant to specific inhibitors.
126
What does **HAART** stand for?
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy.
127
Fill in the blank: **Saquinavir** is an example of a _______.
protease inhibitor
128
Define **viral load**.
The amount of virus present in a patient's blood.
129
What is the role of **reverse transcriptase inhibitors**?
They block the conversion of viral RNA into DNA.
130
True or false: **Combination therapy** is often used in HIV treatment.
TRUE
## Footnote
Using multiple drugs reduces the chance of resistance and improves treatment efficacy.
131
Define **neuraminidase inhibitors**.
Antiviral drugs that block the enzyme neuraminidase, preventing viral release from infected cells.
132
True or false: **Oseltamivir** is a neuraminidase inhibitor.
TRUE
## Footnote
Oseltamivir is commonly used to treat influenza.
133
Fill in the blank: **Zanamivir** is administered via _______.
Inhalation
134
What is the primary use of **neuraminidase inhibitors**?
To treat and prevent influenza virus infections.
135
True or false: Neuraminidase inhibitors are effective against all viruses.
FALSE
## Footnote
They specifically target influenza viruses.
136
What is the mechanism of action for **neuraminidase inhibitors**?
They inhibit the neuraminidase enzyme, preventing the release of new viral particles.
137
Name one side effect of **oseltamivir**.
Nausea
138
Fill in the blank: **Peramivir** is given as a _______.
Intravenous infusion
139
Define **antiviral drugs**.
Medications used to treat viral infections by inhibiting virus development.
140
True or false: Neuraminidase inhibitors can shorten the duration of influenza symptoms.
TRUE
## Footnote
They are most effective when taken within 48 hours of symptom onset.
141
Define **antiprotozoal drugs**.
Medications used to treat infections caused by protozoa.
142
True or false: **Metronidazole** interferes with DNA synthesis.
TRUE
## Footnote
Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa.
143
What is the mechanism of action for **nitazoxanide**?
It inhibits the pyruvate-ferredoxin oxidoreductase pathway, disrupting energy metabolism.
144
Fill in the blank: **Pyrimethamine** is used to treat _______ infections.
toxoplasmosis
145
What type of drug is **sulfadiazine**?
A sulfonamide antibiotic that inhibits folic acid synthesis.
146
True or false: **Chloroquine** targets DNA synthesis directly.
FALSE
## Footnote
Chloroquine primarily inhibits heme polymerization in malaria treatment.
147
Define **folate antagonists**.
Drugs that inhibit folate metabolism, crucial for DNA synthesis.
148
What is the primary use of **quinine**?
To treat malaria by interfering with the parasite's ability to digest hemoglobin.
149
Fill in the blank: **Atovaquone** is used in combination with _______ for treating malaria.
proguanil
150
True or false: **Trimethoprim** is effective against protozoal infections.
TRUE
## Footnote
Trimethoprim is often used in combination with sulfamethoxazole.
151
Define **antiprotozoal drugs**.
Medications used to treat infections caused by protozoa, such as malaria and amoebiasis.
152
True or false: **Metronidazole** is effective against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa.
TRUE
## Footnote
Commonly used for infections like giardiasis and trichomoniasis.
153
Fill in the blank: **Chloroquine** is primarily used to treat _______.
Malaria
154
What is the mechanism of action for **sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine**?
It inhibits folic acid synthesis in protozoa, disrupting their metabolism.
155
Define **pentamidine**.
An antiprotozoal drug used to treat infections like leishmaniasis and African sleeping sickness.
156
True or false: **Ivermectin** is used to treat protozoal infections.
FALSE
## Footnote
Ivermectin is primarily used for parasitic infections caused by helminths and ectoparasites.
157
What type of infections does **nitazoxanide** target?
It targets a variety of protozoal infections, including giardiasis and cryptosporidiosis.
158
Fill in the blank: **Atovaquone** is often combined with _______ for malaria treatment.
Proguanil
159
What is the primary use of **doxycycline** in antiprotozoal therapy?
It is used for malaria prophylaxis and treatment, especially in resistant cases.
160
Define **quinine**.
A natural antimalarial compound derived from the bark of the cinchona tree.
161
Define **antiprotozoan drugs**.
Medications used to treat infections caused by protozoa, targeting specific life cycle stages.
162
True or false: **Metronidazole** is effective against all protozoan infections.
FALSE
## Footnote
Metronidazole primarily targets Giardia and Entamoeba, not all protozoa.
163
Fill in the blank: **Chloroquine** is used to treat _______ malaria.
Plasmodium vivax
164
What is the mechanism of **Pentamidine**?
It interferes with DNA and RNA synthesis in protozoa, treating infections like leishmaniasis.
165
Define **life cycle stage** in protozoa.
The distinct phases in the development of a protozoan, including trophozoite and cyst stages.
166
What does **Sulfadiazine** target?
It targets the **trophozoite stage** of Toxoplasma gondii.
167
True or false: **Nifurtimox** is used for Chagas disease.
TRUE
## Footnote
Nifurtimox is effective during the acute phase of Chagas disease.
168
Fill in the blank: **Iodoquinol** is effective against _______ infections.
Entamoeba histolytica
169
What is the role of **Atovaquone**?
It disrupts mitochondrial function in protozoa, used for treating Pneumocystis pneumonia.
170
Define **protozoan cyst**.
A dormant, resistant form of protozoa that can survive harsh conditions.
171
Define **protozoans**.
Single-celled eukaryotic organisms that can be free-living or parasitic.
172
True or false: Protozoans have **prokaryotic** cell structures.
FALSE
## Footnote
Protozoans are eukaryotic, meaning they have a defined nucleus.
173
Fill in the blank: Treatments for protozoan infections target unique **metabolic** _______.
pathways
174
What is a common **treatment** for protozoan infections?
Antimicrobial drugs that disrupt specific metabolic processes.
175
Define **eukaryotic**.
Organisms with complex cells containing a nucleus and organelles.
176
True or false: Protozoans reproduce only **sexually**.
FALSE
## Footnote
Protozoans can reproduce both sexually and asexually.
177
What role does **DNA** play in protozoan treatments?
Targeting DNA replication processes can inhibit protozoan growth.
178
Fill in the blank: Protozoans are often classified based on their **________** type.
movement
179
What is a key characteristic of **parasitic protozoans**?
They depend on a host organism for survival and reproduction.
180
Define **antiprotozoal drugs**.
Medications specifically designed to treat infections caused by protozoans.
181
Define **antihelminthic drugs**.
Medications used to treat infections caused by parasitic worms.
182
What is the mechanism of **pyrantel pamoate**?
It paralyzes worms by causing neuromuscular blockade.
183
True or false: **Ivermectin** is effective against all types of worms.
FALSE
## Footnote
Ivermectin is primarily effective against roundworms and some ectoparasites.
184
Fill in the blank: **Benzimidazoles** inhibit _______ synthesis in worms.
microtubule
185
What is the primary use of **albendazole**?
To treat infections caused by various types of parasitic worms.
186
Define **neurotoxic agents** in the context of antihelminthic drugs.
Substances that disrupt the nervous system of parasites, leading to paralysis.
187
What type of worms does **levamisole** target?
Primarily nematodes (roundworms).
188
True or false: **Praziquantel** is used for tapeworm infections.
TRUE
## Footnote
Praziquantel increases the permeability of the worm's cell membrane.
189
Fill in the blank: **Mebendazole** is effective against _______ infections.
intestinal
190
What is the role of **niclosamide**?
To kill tapeworms by inhibiting their ability to absorb glucose.
191
Define **antihelminth drugs**.
Medications used to treat infections caused by parasitic worms.
192
True or false: **Albendazole** is an antihelminth drug.
TRUE
193
Fill in the blank: **Praziquantel** is effective against _______ infections.
Schistosomiasis
194
What is the mechanism of **Mebendazole**?
It inhibits microtubule synthesis in helminths, disrupting their metabolism.
195
Name a common side effect of **antihelminth drugs**.
Nausea
196
True or false: **Ivermectin** is used for both parasites and some viral infections.
TRUE
197
What type of worms does **Levamisole** primarily target?
Nematodes
198
Fill in the blank: **Nitazoxanide** is effective against _______ and protozoan infections.
Helminths
199
Define **nematodes**.
A type of roundworm, often targeted by antihelminth drugs.
200
What is the primary use of **Diethylcarbamazine**?
To treat filariasis, a parasitic disease caused by worms.
201
Define **helminths**.
Parasitic worms that can infect various hosts, including humans.
202
What is the primary action of drugs that damage **helminths' outer surface**?
They disrupt the protective cuticle, leading to the death of the parasite.
203
True or false: Drugs targeting helminths are always safe for humans.
FALSE
## Footnote
Some drugs can have side effects or toxicity in humans.
204
Fill in the blank: **Praziquantel** is used to damage the _______ of helminths.
outer surface
205
What is the role of **albendazole** in treating helminth infections?
It inhibits microtubule synthesis, affecting the outer surface integrity.
206
Define **cuticle** in the context of helminths.
A protective outer layer that shields helminths from the host's immune system.
207
Fill in the blank: **Mebendazole** targets the helminths' _______ surface.
outer
208
True or false: Helminths can regenerate their outer surface after damage.
TRUE
## Footnote
Some helminths can repair their cuticle, complicating treatment.
209
What is the mechanism of action for **nitazoxanide**?
It disrupts energy metabolism and damages the outer surface of helminths.
210
Define **anthelmintic drugs**.
Medications used to treat infections caused by helminths.
211
Define **helminths**.
Parasitic worms that can infect humans and animals, including flatworms and roundworms.
212
True or false: Helminth treatments target **human cell processes**.
FALSE
## Footnote
Helminth treatments focus on processes unique to the parasites, minimizing harm to human cells.
213
What is the primary focus of helminth treatments?
They target **neuro** or **metabolic** processes that differ from those in human cells.
214
Fill in the blank: Helminth treatments often disrupt the parasite's **______** processes.
metabolic
215
Name a common **class of drugs** used to treat helminth infections.
Benzimidazoles are commonly used to treat various helminth infections.
216
True or false: Helminth treatments are usually **broad-spectrum**.
TRUE
## Footnote
They can target multiple types of helminths simultaneously.
217
What is the mechanism of action for **ivermectin**?
Ivermectin enhances the release of neurotransmitters, leading to paralysis and death of the helminth.
218
Fill in the blank: **Praziquantel** is effective against _______ infections.
trematode and cestode
219
Define **neurotoxic agents** in the context of helminth treatments.
Substances that disrupt the nervous system of helminths, leading to their paralysis.
220
What is the role of **metabolic inhibitors** in helminth treatments?
They disrupt energy production in helminths, leading to their death.
221
Define **broad spectrum antibiotics**.
Antibiotics effective against a wide range of bacteria, both Gram-positive and Gram-negative.
222
True or false: **Narrow spectrum antibiotics** target specific types of bacteria.
TRUE
## Footnote
They are often used to minimize disruption to normal flora.
223
Fill in the blank: **Broad spectrum antibiotics** are often used when the _______ of infection is unknown.
pathogen
224
What is a disadvantage of **broad spectrum antibiotics**?
They can disrupt normal microbiota, leading to secondary infections.
225
Name one example of a **narrow spectrum antibiotic**.
Penicillin is a common narrow spectrum antibiotic.
226
True or false: **Narrow spectrum antibiotics** are less likely to cause antibiotic resistance.
TRUE
## Footnote
They target specific bacteria, reducing the chance of resistance development.
227
What is the primary use of **broad spectrum antibiotics**?
To treat infections when the causative organism is not identified.
228
Fill in the blank: **Narrow spectrum antibiotics** are often preferred for _______ infections.
targeted
229
Define **antibiotic resistance**.
The ability of bacteria to survive and grow despite the presence of antibiotics.
230
What is a common concern with overusing **broad spectrum antibiotics**?
Increased risk of developing antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
231
Define **antibiotic resistance**.
The ability of bacteria to survive exposure to antibiotics that would normally kill them.
232
True or false: **Enzymes** can inactivate antibiotics.
TRUE
## Footnote
Enzymes like beta-lactamases break down specific antibiotics, rendering them ineffective.
233
Fill in the blank: **Beta-lactamase** is an enzyme that _______ beta-lactam antibiotics.
inactivates
234
What is the role of **plasmids** in antibiotic resistance?
Plasmids can carry genes that encode enzymes for antibiotic resistance between bacteria.
235
Define **horizontal gene transfer**.
The transfer of genetic material between organisms in a manner other than traditional reproduction.
236
True or false: **Enzyme production** is a common mechanism of antibiotic resistance.
TRUE
## Footnote
Many bacteria produce enzymes to neutralize antibiotics, contributing to resistance.
237
What is **extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL)**?
An enzyme that provides resistance to a wider range of beta-lactam antibiotics.
238
Fill in the blank: **Carbapenemases** are enzymes that inactivate _______ antibiotics.
carbapenem
239
What is **selective pressure** in the context of antibiotic resistance?
Environmental factors that favor the survival of resistant bacteria over susceptible ones.
240
True or false: **Antibiotic misuse** contributes to the development of resistance.
TRUE
## Footnote
Overprescribing and incomplete courses of antibiotics can lead to resistance development.
241
Define **antibiotic resistance**.
The ability of bacteria to survive and grow despite the presence of antibiotics.
242
True or false: **Changes in drug target sites** can lead to antibiotic resistance.
TRUE
## Footnote
Alterations in target sites prevent antibiotics from binding effectively.
243
Fill in the blank: **Mutation** in bacterial DNA can alter _______ sites.
target
244
What is a **target site** in antibiotics?
A specific location on a bacterial cell where antibiotics exert their effect.
245
Name a mechanism by which bacteria develop **resistance**.
Modification of target sites or production of enzymes that degrade antibiotics.
246
True or false: **Plasmids** can carry resistance genes between bacteria.
TRUE
## Footnote
Plasmids facilitate horizontal gene transfer, spreading resistance traits.
247
What role do **efflux pumps** play in antibiotic resistance?
They expel antibiotics from bacterial cells, reducing drug effectiveness.
248
Fill in the blank: **Beta-lactamase** enzymes can _______ beta-lactam antibiotics.
degrade
249
Define **cross-resistance**.
Resistance to one antibiotic that confers resistance to another antibiotic.
250
What is the impact of **target modification** on antibiotic treatment?
It reduces the effectiveness of antibiotics, complicating treatment options.
251
Define **Efflux pump**.
A protein that transports antibiotics out of bacterial cells, contributing to antibiotic resistance.
252
True or false: **Efflux pumps** only expel antibiotics.
FALSE
## Footnote
Efflux pumps can also expel toxic substances and heavy metals.
253
Fill in the blank: **Efflux pumps** are a mechanism of _______ resistance.
Antibiotic
254
What role do **Efflux pumps** play in bacteria?
They help bacteria survive by removing harmful substances, including antibiotics.
255
Name a common **bacterial genus** known for using efflux pumps.
Pseudomonas
256
True or false: **Efflux pumps** can be targeted by new antibiotics.
TRUE
## Footnote
Researchers are exploring inhibitors that can block efflux pump activity.
257
What is the impact of **Efflux pumps** on treatment outcomes?
They can lead to treatment failure by reducing antibiotic effectiveness.
258
Fill in the blank: **Multidrug resistance** is often due to _______ pumps.
Efflux
259
Define **antibiotic resistance**.
The ability of bacteria to resist the effects of drugs that once killed them.
260
What is the relationship between **Efflux pumps** and biofilms?
Efflux pumps enhance survival of bacteria in biofilms by expelling antibiotics.
261
Define **decreased membrane permeability**.
A condition where the cell membrane becomes less permeable to substances, affecting antibiotic entry.
262
True or false: **Decreased membrane permeability** can lead to antibiotic resistance.
TRUE
## Footnote
This mechanism prevents antibiotics from entering bacterial cells.
263
Fill in the blank: **Porin proteins** are responsible for _______ in bacterial membranes.
Regulating permeability
264
What is the role of **efflux pumps** in antibiotic resistance?
They actively transport antibiotics out of the cell, reducing drug concentration.
265
Name a common mechanism of **antibiotic resistance** related to membranes.
Altered porin expression
266
True or false: **Gram-negative bacteria** are more susceptible to antibiotics due to their outer membrane.
FALSE
## Footnote
Gram-negative bacteria often have decreased permeability due to their outer membrane structure.
267
What is **lipopolysaccharide**'s role in membrane permeability?
It contributes to the structural integrity of the outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria.
268
Fill in the blank: **Antibiotic resistance** can occur through changes in _______ structure.
Membrane lipid
269
Define **biofilm** in the context of antibiotic resistance.
A structured community of bacteria that can exhibit decreased permeability to antibiotics.
270
What is the effect of **mutations** on membrane proteins regarding antibiotic resistance?
Mutations can alter membrane protein function, reducing antibiotic uptake.
271
What are the **three origins** of drugs mentioned?
* Natural
* Semi-synthetic
* Synthetic
## Footnote
These origins categorize drugs based on their source.
272
Name the **types** of drugs listed.
* Anti-Biotic
* Anti-Parasitic
* Anti-Fungal
* Anti-Viral
## Footnote
These types indicate the primary action of the drugs.
273
What is the **target key** for Penicillin?
Cell Wall
## Footnote
Penicillin primarily targets the bacterial cell wall.
274
What is the **spectrum** of activity for Vancomycin?
Narrow: Gram+
## Footnote
Vancomycin is effective primarily against Gram-positive bacteria.
275
Fill in the blank: **Streptomycin** targets the _______.
30S ribosome
## Footnote
Streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis by targeting the ribosome.
276
What is the **mechanism of action** for Tetracyclines?
Blocks tRNA attachment
## Footnote
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis by preventing tRNA from binding.
277
True or false: **Chloroquine** is used to treat tuberculosis.
FALSE
## Footnote
Chloroquine is primarily used to treat malaria.
278
What is the **unique feature** of the drug Isoniazid?
First TB Drug
## Footnote
Isoniazid was the first drug developed specifically for tuberculosis treatment.
279
Name the **drugs** that target **ergosterol**.
* Amphotericin B
* Nystatin
* Azoles
## Footnote
These drugs are antifungal agents that disrupt fungal cell membranes.
280
What is the **target** for Rifampin?
RNA polymerase
## Footnote
Rifampin inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis.
281
What is the **spectrum** of activity for Erythromycin?
Broad
## Footnote
Erythromycin is effective against a wide range of bacteria.
282
Fill in the blank: **Acyclovir** is a _______ analog.
Thymidine
## Footnote
Acyclovir acts as a chain terminator in viral DNA synthesis.
283
What is the **mechanism of action** for Sulfonamides?
PABA analog + blocks DHPS
## Footnote
Sulfonamides inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis.
284
What is the **target key** for Gentamycin?
30S ribosome
## Footnote
Gentamycin inhibits protein synthesis by targeting the ribosome.
285
Name the **drugs** that are classified as **broad anti-viral**.
* Ribavirin
* Zidovudine (AZT)
* Lamivudine (3TC)
## Footnote
These drugs are effective against a wide range of viral infections.
286
What is the **unique feature** of Interferon-a?
Only activates in infected cells
## Footnote
Interferon-a enhances host anti-viral pathways specifically in infected cells.
287
What is the **class** of **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**?
Gram Neg / Non-Enteric
## Footnote
It is a common bacterium that can cause disease in humans.
288
What type of virus is **HSV-1**?
Herpesviruses
## Footnote
HSV-1 is associated with cold sores.
289
What disease is caused by **Bordetella pertussis**?
Whooping Cough
## Footnote
This bacterium affects the respiratory system.
290
What is the **agent** for **Typhoid Fever**?
Salmonella typhi/enterica
## Footnote
This bacterium is transmitted through contaminated food and water.
291
What type of virus is **SARS-CoV-2**?
Coronaviruses
## Footnote
It is responsible for COVID-19.
292
What is the **system** affected by **HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)**?
Immune System
## Footnote
HIV attacks the immune system, leading to AIDS.
293
What disease is associated with **Norovirus**?
Noroviral Gastroenteritis
## Footnote
It causes gastrointestinal distress.
294
What is the **class** of **Escherichia coli**?
Gram Neg / Enteric / Coliform
## Footnote
E. coli can cause foodborne illness.
295
What is the **agent** for **Influenza (The Flu)**?
Orthomyxovirus Influenza
## Footnote
This virus affects the respiratory system.
296
What type of virus is **HPV (Human Papilloma Virus)**?
Papillomaviruses
## Footnote
HPV is associated with genital warts and cervical cancer.
297
What disease is caused by **Legionella pneumophilia**?
Legionnaires
## Footnote
This bacterium is linked to pneumonia.
298
What is the **class** of **Vibrio cholerae**?
Gram Neg / Enteric
## Footnote
It is the causative agent of cholera.
299
What disease is associated with **HSV-3 (Varicella-Zoster Virus)**?
Chicken Pox / Shingles
## Footnote
This virus can remain dormant and reactivate later.
300
What is the **agent** for **Poliomyelitis (Polio)**?
Poliomyelitis picornavirus
## Footnote
This virus affects the nervous system.
301
What is the **class** of **Camphylobacter jejuni**?
Gram Neg / Enteric
## Footnote
It is a common cause of gastrointestinal infections.
302
What is the **system** affected by **Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease**?
Brain
## Footnote
This disease is caused by infectious PrP proteins.
303
What disease is caused by **Shigella sonnei/flexneri**?
Shigellosis
## Footnote
This bacterium causes gastrointestinal illness.
304
What is the **class** of **Hepatitis B Virus**?
Enveloped
## Footnote
It is a virus that affects the liver.
305
What disease is associated with **West Nile Virus**?
West Nile Fever
## Footnote
This virus can affect the nervous system.
306
What is the **agent** for **Red Measles**?
Measles Virus
## Footnote
This virus is highly contagious and affects the skin.
307
What is the **class** of **Hepatitis C**?
Enveloped
## Footnote
It is a virus that primarily affects the liver.
308
What disease is caused by **Norovirus**?
Noroviral Gastroenteritis
## Footnote
It is a leading cause of gastroenteritis outbreaks.
309
What is the goal of **antimicrobial chemotherapy**?
Administer a drug to destroy the infective agent without harming the host’s cells
## Footnote
Antimicrobial drugs are produced naturally or synthetically.
310
Antimicrobial drugs should be selectively **toxic**. What does this mean?
Drugs should kill or inhibit microbial cells without damaging host tissues
## Footnote
As the infectious agent becomes more similar to the host cell, selective toxicity becomes more difficult.
311
Name the **primary drug targets** in microbial cells.
* Inhibition of Cell Wall Synthesis
* Disruption of Cell Membrane
* Interference with DNA/RNA Function
* Inhibition of Protein Synthesis
* Blocking Metabolic Pathways
## Footnote
These targets are crucial for the effectiveness of antimicrobial drugs.
312
What is the **spectrum** of an antimicrobial drug?
Range of activity of a drug
## Footnote
It indicates how many different types of microbes the drug can affect.
313
What are **narrow-spectrum drugs**?
Effective on a small range of microbes
## Footnote
They target specific cell components found only in certain microbes.
314
What are **broad-spectrum drugs**?
Effective on a wide range of microbes
## Footnote
They target cell components common to most pathogens.
315
List the **major antimicrobial drug groups**.
* Antibacterial drugs
* Antibiotics
* Synthetic drugs
* Antifungal drugs
* Antiparasitic drugs
* Antiviral drugs
## Footnote
About 260 different antimicrobial drugs are classified in 20 drug families.
316
What do **penicillins** and **cephalosporins** block?
Synthesis of peptidoglycan
## Footnote
This causes the bacterial cell wall to lyse.
317
True or false: **Polymyxins** interact with phospholipids and cause leakage in gram-negative bacteria.
TRUE
## Footnote
They damage the integrity of the cell membrane.
318
What is the effect of **quinolones**?
Inhibit DNA helicases, preventing replication and repair
## Footnote
They are considered broad-spectrum.
319
What is **competitive inhibition** in the context of antimicrobial drugs?
Drug competes with normal substrate for enzyme’s active site
## Footnote
This leads to a slowdown or stop in cellular metabolism.
320
What are the **characteristics of the ideal antimicrobial drug**?
* Selectively toxic to the microbe
* Microbicidal rather than microbistatic
* Remains potent long enough
* Not subject to resistance
* Complements host defenses
* Active when diluted
* Readily delivered to infection site
* Reasonably priced
* Does not disrupt host health
## Footnote
These characteristics help ensure the effectiveness and safety of antimicrobial treatments.
321
What is the primary mode of action of **beta-lactam antimicrobials**?
Interfere with cell wall synthesis
## Footnote
Greater than half of all antimicrobial drugs are beta-lactams.
322
What are the three parts of the **chemical structure of penicillin**?
* Thiazolidine ring
* Beta-lactam ring
* Variable side chain
## Footnote
The side chain dictates microbial activity.
323
What are the **three parts** that all penicillins consist of?
* Thiazolidine ring
* Beta-lactam ring
* Variable side chain
## Footnote
The variable side chain dictates microbial activity.
324
Penicillin is the drug of choice for which types of bacteria?
* Gram-positive cocci (streptococci)
* Some gram-negative bacteria (meningococci and syphilis spirochete)
## Footnote
It is effective against specific bacterial infections.
325
True or false: If the **B lactam ring** is broken, the antibiotic is still active.
FALSE
## Footnote
The antibiotic becomes inactive if the B lactam ring is broken.
326
What are the **solutions** to overcome beta-lactamase resistance?
* Use penicillinase-resistant forms (nafcillin, cloxacillin)
* Combine with beta-lactamase inhibitors (Clavulanic acid + Amoxicillin → Augmentin)
* Combine with Tazobactam + Piperacillin → Zosyn
## Footnote
These strategies help maintain the effectiveness of penicillin.
327
Name two **narrow-spectrum derivatives** of penicillin.
* Dicloxacillin
* Nafcillin
## Footnote
These derivatives are resistant to penicillinases.
328
What are the **broad/extended-spectrum** penicillins?
* Ampicillin
* Amoxicillin
* Ticarcillin
* Piperacillin
## Footnote
These semisynthetic penicillins can cross gram-negative membranes.
329
Cephalosporins account for what fraction of all antibiotics administered?
One-third
## Footnote
They are synthetically altered beta-lactam structures.
330
What is the **root** of the generic names for cephalosporins?
– cef, ceph, or kef
## Footnote
This root indicates their classification as cephalosporins.
331
How many **generations** of cephalosporins exist?
Four
## Footnote
Each generation is more effective against gram-negatives than the previous one.
332
What is the **first generation** of cephalosporins known for?
* Cephalothin
* Cefazolin
## Footnote
They are most effective against gram-positive cocci and few gram-negative.
333
What is the **second generation** of cephalosporins known for?
* Cefaclor
* Cefinacid
## Footnote
They are more effective against gram-negative bacteria.
334
What is the **third generation** of cephalosporins known for?
* Cephalexin
* Ceftriaxone
## Footnote
They have broad-spectrum activity against enteric bacteria with beta-lactamases.
335
What is the **fourth generation** of cephalosporins known for?
* Cefepime
## Footnote
It has the widest range, effective against both gram-negative and gram-positive.
336
Who developed the synthetic arsenic drug known as the **MAGIC BULLET** in 1910?
Paul Ehrlich
## Footnote
This drug was used to treat syphilis.
337
Who discovered **penicillin** in 1922?
Alexander Fleming
## Footnote
He found it in mold, specifically *Penicillium chrysogenum*.
338
What are **carbapenems** known for?
* Broad-spectrum beta-lactams
* More resistant to beta-lactamases
* Effective in low concentrations
## Footnote
They are generally well-tolerated and orally active.
339
What does **CRE** stand for?
Carbapenem-Resistant Enterics
## Footnote
CRE infections are harder to treat and pose serious health risks.
340
What is **vancomycin** used for?
* Serious penicillin/methicillin-resistant staph infections
* C. difficile
* Endocarditis (Enterococcus faecalis)
## Footnote
It is reserved for life-threatening cases.
341
What is **bacitracin** derived from?
Bacillus subtilis
## Footnote
It blocks peptidoglycan elongation in gram-positive bacteria.
342
What does **isoniazid** inhibit?
Mycolic acid synthesis
## Footnote
It is used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis infections.
343
What are **fluoroquinolones** known for?
* Broad-spectrum
* Target key enzymes in DNA replication (DNA gyrase and Topoisomerase IV)
## Footnote
Common examples include Ciprofloxacin and Levofloxacin.
344
What is the mechanism of action for **rifampin**?
Inhibits RNA polymerase → blocks transcription
## Footnote
It is used for tuberculosis and leprosy.
345
What are **aminoglycosides**?
* Protein synthesis inhibitors
* Derived from Streptomyces and Micromonospora species
## Footnote
They are broad-spectrum and effective against various bacterial infections.
346
What is the **structure** of chloramphenicol?
Unique nitrobenzene structure
## Footnote
It blocks peptide bond formation and protein synthesis.
347
What are **macrolides** used for?
* Mycoplasma pneumonia
* Legionellosis
* Chlamydia
* Diphtheria
## Footnote
They are moderate-spectrum antibiotics with relatively low toxicity.
348
What do **sulfa drugs** block?
Synthesis of folic acid by bacteria
## Footnote
They are narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
349
What is the combination name for trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole?
Septra or Bactrim
## Footnote
It is used for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia and UTIs.
350
What is **otitis media**?
An ear infection that affects the middle ear
## Footnote
Commonly seen in children and can be caused by bacteria or viruses.
351
Name a class of drugs that **block metabolic reactions**.
* Sulfa Drugs (Sulfonamides)
## Footnote
These drugs block the folic acid pathway.
352
What are the **three new drug types** formulated from pre-existing drug classes?
* Fosfomycin trimethamine
* Synercid
* Daptomycin
## Footnote
Each has unique mechanisms of action against specific infections.
353
Fosfomycin trimethamine is effective as an alternate treatment for **UTIs**; what does it inhibit?
Cell wall synthesis
## Footnote
It is a phosphoric acid derivative.
354
Synercid is effective against which bacteria that cause **endocarditis**?
* Staphylococcus
* Enterococcus
## Footnote
Used when bacteria are resistant to other drugs.
355
Daptomycin is directed mainly against which type of bacteria?
Gram-positive
## Footnote
It disrupts membrane function.
356
What is **linezolid** (Zyvox) classified as?
Oxazolidinone
## Footnote
It blocks the interaction of mRNA and ribosome.
357
Bedaquiline (Sirturo) is the first new anti-TB drug in how many years?
40 years
## Footnote
Reserved for multidrug-resistant (MDR) and extensively drug-resistant (XDR) tuberculosis.
358
What are the main groups of drugs developed to specifically treat **fungal infections**?
* Macrolide polyene antibiotics
* Griseofulvin
* Synthetic azoles
* Flucytosine
* Echinocandins
* Fungerps
## Footnote
Fungal cells are eukaryotic, complicating treatment.
359
Fungal diseases are referred to as **mycoses**. What are **cutaneous mycoses**?
Fungal infections of the skin
## Footnote
Examples include ringworm and athlete’s foot.
360
What is the role of **amphotericin B**?
Versatile and effective antifungal
## Footnote
Used for both topical and systemic treatments.
361
What does **griseofulvin** treat?
Stubborn cases of dermatophyte infections
## Footnote
It is nephrotoxic.
362
What is the mechanism of action for **macrolide polyenes**?
Bind to fungal membranes and cause loss of selective permeability
## Footnote
This disrupts the integrity of the fungal cell.
363
What is the function of **flucytosine**?
Analog of cytosine; used for cutaneous mycoses
## Footnote
Often combined with amphotericin B for systemic mycoses.
364
What do **echinocandins** do?
Damage cell walls
## Footnote
Examples include Capsofungin.
365
What are the **antimalarial drugs** mentioned?
* Quinine
* Chloroquine
* Primaquine
* Mefloquine
## Footnote
These are used to treat malaria.
366
What is the purpose of **protease inhibitors**?
Block viral protein synthesis
## Footnote
Used in the treatment of HIV.
367
What is the role of **dexamethasone** in treating severe COVID?
Reduces inflammation
## Footnote
It helps mitigate lung damage caused by the body's reaction to the virus.
368
What are the **three essential factors** to consider before starting antimicrobial therapy?
* Nature of the infectious microorganism
* Drug susceptibility of the microorganism
* Medical condition of the patient
## Footnote
These factors guide effective treatment.
369
What does the **Kirby-Bauer test** measure?
Sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics
## Footnote
It generates an antibiogram.
370
What is the **minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)**?
Lowest concentration preventing growth
## Footnote
It helps determine the lowest effective dose.
371
What is the significance of the **Phenol Coefficient Test**?
Measures the effectiveness of disinfectants
## Footnote
It uses indicator bacteria like Salmonella typhi.
372
What does a **commercially prepared chemical strip** create when placed on an agar plate?
A gradient of antibiotic concentration
## Footnote
This method is used to determine the effectiveness of antibiotics against specific bacteria.
373
Fill in the blank: The **Phenol Coefficient Test** is a __________ test.
dilution
## Footnote
This test involves exposing cultures to dilutions of a test chemical for a standard comparison.
374
Name the **three indicator bacteria** used in the Phenol Coefficient Test.
* Salmonella typhi
* Staphylococcus aureus
* Pseudomonas aeruginosa
## Footnote
These bacteria are used to assess the effectiveness of disinfectants.
375
If the **Phenol coefficient** is greater than 1, what does it indicate about the chemical?
Chemical is effective
## Footnote
A coefficient greater than 1 suggests that the chemical is more effective than phenol.
376
If the **Phenol coefficient** is less than 1, what does it indicate about the chemical?
Chemical is less effective
## Footnote
A coefficient less than 1 indicates that the chemical is less effective than phenol.
377
What is the **Chemotherapeutic index (TI)**?
The ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to the host compared with the minimum dose that is toxic to the pathogen
## Footnote
A higher TI indicates a safer drug.
378
True or false: A **TI** of 1 means the drug is equally likely to kill the host as the pathogen.
TRUE
## Footnote
A TI of 1 indicates no therapeutic advantage.
379
Drug X has a **Chemotherapeutic Index** of 8.0 and Drug Y has a TI of 2.5. Which is a better drug to use?
Drug X
## Footnote
A higher TI indicates a better safety margin.
380
What is **drug resistance**?
Adaptive response where microbes tolerate drugs that once inhibited them
## Footnote
Resistance can be intrinsic or acquired.
381
How does **drug resistance** develop? Name one method.
* Spontaneous mutations in critical chromosomal genes
## Footnote
This can lead to the development of resistance over time.
382
What is one mechanism of **acquired drug resistance**?
* Drug inactivation
## Footnote
An example is the inactivation of penicillin by penicillinase.
383
Fill in the blank: **Decreased permeability** occurs when the receptor that transports the drug is altered, so that the drug cannot _______.
enter the cell
## Footnote
This mechanism prevents the drug from reaching its target.
384
What happens during the **activation of drug pumps**?
Specialized membrane proteins pump the drug out of the cell
## Footnote
This reduces the drug's effectiveness.
385
What is the role of **natural selection** in drug resistance?
Resistant cells survive and proliferate when exposed to drugs
## Footnote
Sensitive cells are inhibited or destroyed.
386
What is a **chemotherapeutic drug**?
Any chemical used in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease
## Footnote
This term encompasses all antimicrobial drugs.
387
Define **antimicrobials**.
Substances produced by microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms
## Footnote
They can also include chemically modified drugs.
388
What are **narrow spectrum** antimicrobials?
Effective against a limited array of microbial types
## Footnote
For example, drugs effective mainly on gram-positive bacteria.
389
What are **broad spectrum** antimicrobials?
Effective against a wide variety of microbial types
## Footnote
For example, drugs effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.
390
What is **antimicrobial chemotherapy**?
The use of chemotherapeutic drugs to control infection
## Footnote
This includes the treatment of various infections.
391
What is the purpose of **combined therapy**?
Prevent infection before it occurs
## Footnote
This is often used in high-risk situations.
392
What is **drug synergy**?
Two drugs work better together than alone
## Footnote
This can lead to increased effectiveness and lower required doses.
393
What are **macrolide polyenes** known for in antifungal treatment?
Bind to fungal membranes and cause loss of selective permeability
## Footnote
This mechanism disrupts the integrity of the fungal cell membrane.
394
Which antifungal drug is considered the **most versatile and effective**?
Amphotericin B
## Footnote
It can be used both topically and systemically.
395
Nystatin is used only in which forms?
* Topically
* Orally
## Footnote
Nystatin is not used for systemic infections.
396
What type of infections is **griseofulvin** used for?
Stubborn cases of dermatophyte infections
## Footnote
Griseofulvin is nephrotoxic.
397
What are **synthetic azoles** known for?
Broad-spectrum antifungal activity
## Footnote
Examples include ketoconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole.
398
What is **flucytosine** an analog of?
Cytosine
## Footnote
It is used for cutaneous mycoses and in combination with amphotericin B for systemic mycoses.
399
What do **echinocandins** do?
Damage cell walls
## Footnote
An example is capsofungin.
400
What is the mechanism of **Fungerps**?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
## Footnote
It targets azole-and echinoderm-resistant Candida species and is administered orally.
401
What is the only single drug included in **Fungerps**?
Ibrexafungerp
## Footnote
It is specifically designed to combat resistant strains.
402
What are the **three new drug types** mentioned that block metabolic pathways?
* Fosfomycin trimethamine
* Synercid
* Daptomycin
## Footnote
These drugs have unique mechanisms of action and are formulated from pre-existing drug classes.
403
What is the mechanism of action for **Fosfomycin trimethamine**?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
## Footnote
It is effective as an alternate treatment for UTIs.
404
What infections is **Synercid** effective against?
* Staphylococcus
* Enterococcus
## Footnote
It is used for endocarditis and surgical infections, especially when bacteria are resistant to other drugs.
405
What is the primary action of **Daptomycin**?
Disrupts membrane function
## Footnote
It is directed mainly against gram-positive bacteria.
406
What is the **synthetic antimicrobial** that blocks the interaction of mRNA and ribosome?
Linezolid (Zyvox)
## Footnote
It is used to treat methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE).
407
What is **Bedaquiline (Sirturo)** known for?
First new anti-TB drug in 40 years
## Footnote
It is reserved for multidrug-resistant (MDR) and extensively drug-resistant (XDR) tuberculosis.
408
What is **Chloramphenicol** known for?
* Potent broad-spectrum drug
* Blocks peptide bond formation and protein synthesis
* Entirely synthesized through chemical processes
* Very toxic, restricted uses
* Can cause irreversible damage to bone marrow
## Footnote
Used for typhoid fever, brain abscesses, rickettsial, and chlamydial infections.
409
What are the **key characteristics** of **Erythromycin**?
* Lactone ring with sugars
* Attaches to ribosomal 50s subunit
* Moderate-spectrum, fairly low toxicity
* Taken orally for various infections
* Newer semi-synthetic macrolides: clarithromycin, azithromycin
## Footnote
Used for Mycoplasma pneumonia, legionellosis, Chlamydia, pertussis, diphtheria, and as prophylactic prior to intestinal surgery.
410
What do **sulfonamides** (or sulfa drugs) block?
The synthesis of folic acid by bacteria
## Footnote
Important for treating infections like shigellosis and UTIs.
411
What is the combination name for **Trimethoprim** when used with sulfamethoxazole?
Septra, Bactrim
## Footnote
Used for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP), UTIs, and otitis media.
412
What type of **inhibition** do sulfa drugs exhibit?
Competitive inhibition
## Footnote
They act as competitive inhibitors at the active site of enzymes.
413
What is the first target of **antimicrobial drugs**?
Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
## Footnote
Examples include penicillin, bacitracin, cephalosporin, and vancomycin.
414
What is the second target of **antimicrobial drugs**?
Disruption of cell membrane function
## Footnote
Example includes polymyxin.
415
What is the third target of **antimicrobial drugs**?
Inhibition of protein synthesis
## Footnote
Examples include tetracycline, erythromycin, streptomycin, and chloramphenicol.
416
What is the fourth target of **antimicrobial drugs**?
Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
## Footnote
Examples include rifamycin (transcription) and quinolones (DNA replication).
417
What is the fifth target of **antimicrobial drugs**?
Action as antimetabolites
## Footnote
Examples include sulfonilamide and trimethoprim.
418
What are **aminoglycosides**?
Protein synthesis inhibitors
## Footnote
They contain amino sugars + aminocyclitol ring and are derived from Streptomyces and Micromonospora species.
419
What is the spectrum of **aminoglycosides**?
Broad-spectrum
## Footnote
Effective against aerobic gram-negative rods and some gram-positive bacteria.
420
Name an example of an **aminoglycoside** used against bubonic plague.
Streptomycin
## Footnote
Also used for tularemia and tuberculosis (TB).
421
What is a less toxic **aminoglycoside** used against gram-negative rods?
Gentamicin
## Footnote
Other aminoglycosides include tobramycin and amikacin.
422
What are **tetracycline antibiotics** known for?
Broad-spectrum, block protein synthesis
## Footnote
They bind to ribosomes and include doxycycline and minocycline.
423
What conditions can **doxycycline** and **minocycline** treat?
* STDs
* Rocky Mountain spotted fever
* Lyme disease
* Typhus
* Mycoplasma pneumonia
* Cholera
* Leptospirosis
* Acne
## Footnote
Generic tetracycline is low in cost but limited by its side effects.
424
What are **fluoroquinolones** related to?
Synthetic drugs related to quinine
## Footnote
They target key enzymes in DNA replication.
425
Which key enzymes do **fluoroquinolones** target in DNA replication?
* DNA gyrase (gram-negatives)
* Topoisomerase IV (gram-positives)
## Footnote
These enzymes are crucial for the replication process in bacteria.
426
List some **common examples** of fluoroquinolones.
* Ciprofloxacin
* Norfloxacin
* Levofloxacin
* Sparfloxacin
## Footnote
These are used for various infections such as UTIs, STDs, pneumonia, and bronchitis.
427
What are the **common uses** of Ciprofloxacin?
* UTIs
* STDs
* GI infections
## Footnote
Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic.
428
What are the **common uses** of Levofloxacin?
* Pneumonia
* Bronchitis
* Sinusitis
## Footnote
Levofloxacin is another fluoroquinolone antibiotic.
429
What caution should be taken with **fluoroquinolones**?
* Risk of tendon damage
* Neurological effects
## Footnote
The CDC advises monitoring use to reduce resistance.
430
What does **Rifampin** inhibit?
RNA polymerase
## Footnote
This action blocks transcription in bacterial cells.
431
What limits the use of **Rifampin**?
Poor penetration of gram-negative outer membrane
## Footnote
This limits its effectiveness against certain bacteria.
432
List the **uses** of Rifampin.
* Tuberculosis
* Leprosy (with other drugs)
* Neisseria meningitidis prophylaxis
* Some gram-positive infections
## Footnote
Rifampin is often used in combination therapy due to resistance development.
433
True or false: Resistance to **Rifampin** develops easily.
TRUE
## Footnote
It is usually given in combination therapy to mitigate this issue.
434
What is **Vancomycin** primarily used for?
* Serious penicillin/methicillin-resistant staph infections
* C. difficile (especially in children)
* Endocarditis (Enterococcus faecalis)
## Footnote
Vancomycin is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic that is toxic and difficult to administer, reserved for life-threatening cases.
435
What are the **newer alternatives** to Vancomycin for treating MRSA skin infections?
* Dalavancin
* Orbactive
## Footnote
These alternatives are effective against MRSA skin infections.
436
What is **Bacitracin** and what is its primary use?
* Peptide antibiotic
* Narrow-spectrum
* Common topical use (e.g., Neosporin)
## Footnote
Bacitracin is made by Bacillus subtilis and blocks peptidoglycan elongation in gram-positive bacteria.
437
What does **Isoniazid (INH)** inhibit?
Mycolic acid synthesis
## Footnote
Isoniazid is used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis infections and is effective only against actively growing cells.
438
Isoniazid is often given with which two other medications?
* Rifampin
* Ethambutol
## Footnote
It is prescribed for both active TB and prophylaxis (e.g., positive TB test).
439
What are **Polymyxins** derived from?
Bacillus polymyxa
## Footnote
Polymyxins B and E (colistin) are clinically used antibiotics.
440
What is the mechanism of action of **Polymyxins**?
Disrupts bacterial cell membranes, causing leakage and death
## Footnote
They are narrow-spectrum antibiotics that target gram-negative rods.
441
Which drug-resistant bacteria are Polymyxins effective against?
* Pseudomonas aeruginosa
* Acinetobacter baumannii
## Footnote
Polymyxins are used clinically but systemic use is limited due to kidney toxicity.
442
What is the common clinical application of **Polymyxin B**?
Topical use in over-the-counter ointments (e.g., Neosporin)
## Footnote
Systemic use is limited due to potential kidney toxicity.
443
What are the **major targets of drugs** on bacterial cells?
* Cell wall inhibitors
* Cell membrane
* Ribosome
* DNA/RNA
* Metabolic pathways and products
## Footnote
These targets represent different mechanisms by which antibiotics affect bacterial cells.
444
Name the **cell wall inhibitors** mentioned.
* Penicillins
* Cephalosporins
* Vancomycin
* Bacitracin
* Monobactams/carbapenems
* Fosfomycin
* Cycloserine
* Isoniazid
## Footnote
These drugs block the synthesis and repair of the bacterial cell wall.
445
What is the effect of **cell membrane inhibitors**?
Cause loss of selective permeability
## Footnote
Polymyxins are examples of drugs that target the cell membrane.
446
Which subunit do **aminoglycosides** act on?
30S subunit
## Footnote
Examples include Gentamicin and Streptomycin.
447
Name the **protein synthesis inhibitors** acting on the 50S subunit.
* Chloramphenicol
* Erythromycin
* Clindamycin
* Streptogramin (Synercid)
## Footnote
These drugs interfere with protein synthesis by targeting the ribosome.
448
What do **quinolones** inhibit?
Inhibit gyrase (unwinding enzyme)
## Footnote
An example is ciprofloxacin, which affects DNA replication.
449
What is the role of **rifampin**?
Inhibit RNA polymerase
## Footnote
This drug affects transcription in bacterial cells.
450
Name two drugs that block **metabolic pathways**.
* Sulfonamides (sulfa drugs)
* Trimethoprim
## Footnote
These drugs inhibit metabolism by blocking specific pathways.
Microbiology
flashcards
Decks in class (36)
# Cards
-
Chemistry & Biochemistry49
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Ch 8 Metabolic109
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Ch. 13 Microbes131
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Ch, 4 Prokaryotes54
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Midterm Prep214
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Ch 189
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Ch. 2104
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Ch. 489
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Practice Test140
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Scientific Disease Names10
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Euk Vs Prok167
-
DNA Rep27
-
Lab Practicum19
-
Ch. 5 Eukaryotes245
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Ch. 6147
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Ch. 9386
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Test 2 Review132
-
#11-51 Cards31
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Ch. 7285
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Ch. 11349
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Ch. 12415
-
Extra 12450
-
Lab Review128
-
Lec 3 Review64
-
Ch 1456
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Disease Cards 21-28, 52-6825
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Disease Card Quiz177
-
Ch. 15315
-
Ch. 16319
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Final Study Guide174
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#10-20137
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#21-31169
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#32-43155
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#44-54160
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#55-68211
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Ch 1748
