1
Q
What is essential for interpreting case studies, laboratory findings, and diagnostic images?
A
Understanding morphology
Morphology helps connect cell structure, laboratory data, and symptoms to disease identification.
2
Q
What are the two main types of organisms based on cell structure?
A
- Prokaryotic
- Eukaryotic
This classification is crucial for identifying the type of organism present in a sample.
3
Q
Identify the types of organisms that findings may indicate.
A
- Bacteria
- Protozoa
- Fungi
- Helminths
- Viruses
- Prions
Recognizing the type of organism is key to diagnosis and treatment.
4
Q
What are the key prokaryotic morphology clues to review?
A
- Gram-positive vs Gram-negative characteristics
- Acid-fast stain and presence of mycolic acid
- Endospores: structure, function, and disease relevance
- Cellular arrangement: chains, clusters, pairs, spirals
- Motility: flagella, axial filaments
- Oxygen requirements: aerobic, anaerobic, facultative
These clues help in identifying and classifying prokaryotic organisms.
5
Q
Fill in the blank: The process from infection to toxin production and systemic spread is known as ________.
A
Toxogenesis
Understanding this process is crucial for diagnosing and treating infections.
6
Q
True or false: Toxemia is the same as intoxication.
A
FALSE
Toxemia refers to the presence of toxins in the blood, while intoxication involves the ingestion of preformed toxins.
7
Q
What is the sequence of the process from infection to systemic spread?
A
- Infection
- Toxogenesis
- Toxemia
This sequence outlines the progression of disease mechanisms.
8
Q
What are the required knowledge areas for all diseases?
A
- Disease Name
- Etiological Agent
- Systems Involved
- Diagnostic Clues
- Signs and Symptoms
- Prevention
- Treatment
These areas encompass essential information needed to understand and manage diseases.
9
Q
Define Etiological Agent in the context of disease.
A
Genus, species, and organism type
This refers to the specific microorganism responsible for causing the disease.
10
Q
What does Systems Involved refer to?
A
Primary body systems impacted
Identifying which body systems are affected helps in understanding the disease’s impact.
11
Q
What are Diagnostic Clues in disease identification?
A
- Stains
- Cultures
- Microscopy
- Toxins
These clues assist in diagnosing the disease based on laboratory findings.
12
Q
What are the Signs and Symptoms of a disease?
A
Classic and unique identifying clues
Recognizing signs and symptoms is crucial for diagnosis and treatment.
13
Q
What does Prevention include for diseases?
A
- Vaccines
- Hygiene
- Sanitation
Preventive measures are essential to control the spread of diseases.
14
Q
What types of Treatment are available for diseases?
A
- Antibiotics
- Antivirals
- Antifungals
- Antiparasitics
Treatment options vary based on the type of infectious agent.
15
Q
What is the first step in Case Study Identification without Notes?
A
Read the case study without looking at notes or disease cards
This technique helps reinforce memory and understanding of the material.
16
Q
What should you ask yourself regarding the system involved in a case study?
A
What system is involved?
Identifying the system helps narrow down potential diseases.
17
Q
What are the types of symptoms to consider in a case study?
A
- Acute
- Chronic
- Systemic
Understanding the nature of symptoms aids in diagnosis.
18
Q
What is a key question to identify diagnosis clues?
A
What diagnosis clues do I see?
Examples include endospore, Gram-negative rod, cysts in stool, rash.
19
Q
What does Structure-Based Reasoning involve?
A
Use only one word clue to identify the disease
This method simplifies the identification process by focusing on key characteristics.
20
Q
What does the clue Acid-fast rod indicate?
A
Mycobacterium tuberculosis or leprae
This clue helps identify specific bacterial infections.
21
Q
What does the clue Gram-negative diplococci indicate?
A
Neisseria gonorrhoeae or meningitidis
This clue is critical for diagnosing certain bacterial infections.
22
Q
What does the clue Rice-water diarrhea indicate?
A
Vibrio cholerae
This symptom is characteristic of cholera infection.
23
Q
How to differentiate between Cholera, Traveler’s Diarrhea, and E. coli 0157:H7?
A
- Stool characteristics
- Systemic symptoms
- Toxins
These factors help in identifying the specific disease among those that present similar symptoms.
24
Q
What are the key differences between Pinworms, Tapeworms, and Ascaris?
A
- Eggs
- Proglottids
- Worm morphology
These characteristics are essential for distinguishing between these parasitic infections.
25
How to tell apart **Influenza**, **RSV**, and **Rhinovirus**?
* Age group
* Symptoms
* Virus type
## Footnote
Each virus affects different populations and presents unique clinical features.
26
What differentiates **C. difficile**, **Salmonella**, and **Bacillary Dysentery**?
* Lab culture
* Toxin production
* Stool presentation
## Footnote
These diagnostic markers are crucial for accurate identification of the pathogens.
27
Patient with bloody mucoid diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and **Shiga toxin** → _______.
Shigella dysenteriae
## Footnote
This statement summarizes a specific diagnostic scenario for a common infectious disease.
28
Patient with night sweats, coughing blood, acid-fast bacilli → _______.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
## Footnote
This is a classic presentation for tuberculosis, highlighting key symptoms and diagnostic features.
29
Fecal-oral route, liver enlargement, jaundice, virus present in stool → _______.
Hepatitis A
## Footnote
This statement outlines the transmission and symptoms associated with Hepatitis A infection.
30
Which organism causes muscle pain due to encysted larvae in tissue and is acquired from undercooked pork?
Trichinella spiralis
## Footnote
This organism is known for causing trichinosis, a disease linked to undercooked pork consumption.
31
Which disease involves **pseudomembranous colitis**?
C. difficile infection
## Footnote
This condition is often associated with antibiotic use and leads to severe gastrointestinal symptoms.
32
Which disease is transmitted by **cat feces** and is dangerous to pregnant women?
Toxoplasmosis
## Footnote
This infection poses significant risks during pregnancy, potentially affecting fetal development.
33
Which pathogen causes **'rice-water diarrhea'** due to toxin-mediated fluid loss?
Vibrio cholerae
## Footnote
This is a hallmark symptom of cholera, characterized by severe dehydration.
34
Final Exam Success Strategy: Focus on using case study clues, not memorizing isolated facts. True or False?
TRUE
## Footnote
This strategy emphasizes understanding disease patterns and diagnostic reasoning.
35
What should you analyze for effective studying according to the Final Exam Success Strategy?
* Disease patterns
* Transmission routes
* Unique diagnostic markers
## Footnote
These elements are crucial for mastering the material and performing well on exams.
36
What study techniques are recommended for active learning?
* Comparison
* Reasoning
* Self-testing techniques
## Footnote
Engaging with the material actively enhances retention and understanding.
37
What are the main **immunology terms**?
* Susceptibility
* Resistance
* Innate resistance
* Non-specific resistance
* Adaptive immunity
* Specific resistance
* 1st, 2nd, & 3rd lines of defense
## Footnote
Understanding these terms is crucial for distinguishing different aspects of the immune response.
38
Describe the components of the **immune system**.
* Circulatory system - blood
* Lymphatic system - lymph
* Lymph nodes
* RES (Reticuloendothelial System)
* ECF (Extracellular Fluid)
* GALT (Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue)
## Footnote
These components work together to protect the body from pathogens.
39
What are **erythrocytes**, **lymphocytes**, and **leukocytes**?
* Erythrocytes: Red blood cells
* Lymphocytes: T cells & B cells, natural killer cells
* Leukocytes: Granulocytes (neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils), monocytes-macrophages, dendritic cells
## Footnote
Lymphocytes play a key role in adaptive immunity, while leukocytes are involved in both innate and adaptive responses.
40
Which immune cells are **phagocytic**?
* Neutrophils
* Monocytes-macrophages
* Dendritic cells
## Footnote
Phagocytic cells engulf and digest pathogens as part of the immune response.
41
What is a **differential blood count**?
A test that measures the different types of white blood cells in the blood
## Footnote
The mnemonic 'never let monkeys eat bananas' helps remember the order of leukocyte prevalence.
42
What is the main purpose of the **immune system**?
* Survival
* Recognition
* Information
* Destruction
## Footnote
The immune system's primary role is to protect the body from infections and diseases.
43
How does the body recognize **self from non-self**?
Through Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) molecules
## Footnote
MHC-1 is found on all nucleated cells and plays a crucial role in immune recognition.
44
1st Line of Defense - specific or non-specific?
Non-specific
## Footnote
This line includes physical barriers like skin and mucous membranes.
45
Describe the role of **skin, mucous membranes/secretions, & microbiota** in the 1st line of defense.
* Physical barriers (skin)
* Chemical barriers (sebum, lysozyme)
* Biological barriers (microbiota)
## Footnote
These elements work together to prevent pathogen entry and establish a hostile environment for invaders.
46
2nd Line of Defense - specific or non-specific?
Non-specific
## Footnote
This line includes various defense mechanisms that respond to pathogens in a general manner.
47
Describe the **6 main defense systems** within the 2nd line of defense.
* Phagocytosis
* Inflammatory response
* Fever
* Interferons
* Complement system
* Natural killer cells
## Footnote
Each system plays a unique role in combating infections and promoting healing.
48
What are the **5 steps of phagocytosis**?
* Recognition
* Engulfment
* Digestion
* Exocytosis
* Presentation of antigens
## Footnote
Phagocytosis is a critical process for eliminating pathogens and initiating an immune response.
49
What is the role of **cytokines** in the immune response?
They mediate and regulate immunity, inflammation, and hematopoiesis
## Footnote
Cytokines can overlap in function and are crucial for communication between immune cells.
50
What is the main purpose of the **1st & 2nd Lines of Defense**?
To protect the host from pathogens
## Footnote
The 1st line includes physical barriers, while the 2nd line involves immune responses.
51
How long does it typically take for the **3rd line of defense** to become active?
Days to weeks
## Footnote
The 3rd line of defense involves adaptive immunity, which takes longer to respond.
52
Give two examples of pathogens that use the **2nd line of defense** to enter the host and cause pathogenesis.
* Bacteria
* Viruses
## Footnote
These pathogens can bypass initial barriers and trigger immune responses.
53
What are the key **adaptive immunology terms**?
* Humoral
* Cell-mediated
* Antigen
* Antibody
* Titer
* Seroconversion
* T & B markers
## Footnote
These terms are essential for understanding adaptive immunity.
54
Where do **B and T cells** originate and develop in the human body?
* B cells: Bone marrow
* T cells: Thymus
## Footnote
B cells mature in the bone marrow, while T cells mature in the thymus.
55
How do **B and T cells** differ in their protective roles?
* B cells: Produce antibodies
* T cells: Cell-mediated immunity
## Footnote
B cells target pathogens in body fluids, while T cells target infected cells.
56
What is the difference between **MHC-1** & **MHC-2**?
* MHC-1: Present on all nucleated cells, presents endogenous antigens
* MHC-2: Present on professional APCs, presents exogenous antigens
## Footnote
MHC molecules are crucial for antigen presentation to T cells.
57
What are **PAMPs** (pathogen-associated molecular patterns)?
Molecules associated with groups of pathogens
## Footnote
PAMPs are recognized by the immune system to trigger responses.
58
What is meant by the statement 'You are born with every different type of **T and B cell** that you will ever need'?
The body has a diverse repertoire of T and B cells at birth
## Footnote
This diversity allows for a wide range of immune responses.
59
What is **receptor gene rearrangement**?
A process that generates diverse receptors for T and B cells
## Footnote
It occurs in the bone marrow for B cells and in the thymus for T cells.
60
When, where, and why does **receptor gene rearrangement** occur?
Occurs during B and T cell development in bone marrow and thymus to create diversity
## Footnote
It allows the immune system to recognize many different antigens.
61
How many different genes are involved in the **receptor gene rearrangement** process?
Multiple genes
## Footnote
This process involves various gene segments to create unique receptors.
62
How many different cells (host repertoire) are the result of **receptor gene rearrangement**?
Millions of unique T and B cells
## Footnote
This diversity is crucial for effective immune responses.
63
What is **clonal deletion**?
The elimination of self-reactive lymphocytes
## Footnote
This process occurs to prevent autoimmune reactions.
64
What is **clonal selection**?
The process by which specific lymphocytes are activated by antigens
## Footnote
This leads to the proliferation of specific immune cells.
65
When, where, and why do **clonal deletion** and **clonal selection** occur?
During immune responses in lymphoid organs to ensure self-tolerance and effective responses
## Footnote
These processes are essential for maintaining immune system balance.
66
What is meant by **self-tolerance**?
The ability of the immune system to avoid attacking the body's own cells
## Footnote
Self-tolerance is crucial for preventing autoimmune diseases.
67
What are the main characteristics of an **antigen**?
* Foreignness
* Size
* Complexity
* Stability
## Footnote
Antigens are substances that can provoke an immune response.
68
What are **epitopes**?
Specific regions on an antigen recognized by antibodies or T cells
## Footnote
Epitopes are crucial for the specificity of immune responses.
69
What are **haptens**?
Small molecules that can elicit an immune response only when attached to a larger carrier
## Footnote
Haptens are not immunogenic by themselves.
70
Can any foreign chemical act as an **antigen**?
Yes, if it meets the criteria for immunogenicity
## Footnote
Foreign substances can trigger immune responses if they are recognized as non-self.
71
Describe the **humoral response**.
* T-cell independent responses
* T-cell dependent responses
* Role of B-lymphocytes
* Dendritic cells/macrophages
* Antigen presenting cells (APCs)
* MHC-2
* Helper T-cells
* IL-1 & IL-2
* Cytokines
* Clonal B selection
* Activation & proliferation
* Plasma cells - antibodies
* Long-lived memory B cells
## Footnote
The humoral response involves the production of antibodies and memory cells for long-term immunity.
72
What is an **antibody/immunoglobulin (Ig)**?
A protein produced by the immune system to identify and neutralize pathogens
## Footnote
Antibodies bind to specific antigens (Ag) on pathogens or host cells.
73
What are the components of an antibody, including **heavy/light chains**, **4 polypeptides**, **disulfide bonds**, **stem (Fc) region**, **variable tips**, **constant area**, and **complement binding region**?
* Heavy chains
* Light chains
* 4 polypeptides
* Disulfide bonds
* Stem (Fc) region
* Variable tips
* Constant area
* Complement binding region
## Footnote
Each component plays a role in the antibody's structure and function.
74
What are the **5 main classes** of antibodies?
* IgG
* IgM
* IgA
* IgD
* IgE
## Footnote
Each class has different structures and functions in immune response.
75
Which antibody is produced **first in an infection**?
IgM
## Footnote
IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection.
76
Which antibodies are produced by **memory B cells**?
IgG
## Footnote
Memory B cells produce IgG upon re-exposure to the same antigen.
77
Which antibodies can **cross the placental barrier**?
IgG
## Footnote
IgG is the only antibody class that can cross the placenta.
78
Which antibodies are the same as those produced in **breast milk**?
IgA
## Footnote
IgA is found in breast milk and provides passive immunity to infants.
79
Which antibodies participate in **inflammatory responses** and are protective against **parasites**?
IgE
## Footnote
IgE is involved in allergic reactions and defense against parasitic infections.
80
What are the **primary & secondary immune responses**?
* Primary: Initial response to an antigen
* Secondary: Faster and stronger response upon re-exposure
## Footnote
The secondary response is due to memory cells generated during the primary response.
81
What are the functions of **precipitins**, **agglutinins**, **opsonins**, **neutralizers**, & **complement fixation antibodies**?
* Precipitins: Form complexes with soluble antigens
* Agglutinins: Cause clumping of cells
* Opsonins: Mark pathogens for phagocytosis
* Neutralizers: Block pathogen activity
* Complement fixation antibodies: Activate the complement system
## Footnote
Each type of antibody has a specific role in the immune response.
82
Describe the **cell-mediated response**.
* Role of APCs
* MHC-2 presentation
* Helper T-cells activation
* IL-1 & IL-2 production
* Cytokines IL-4, 5, 6 involvement
* Clonal T selection, activation & proliferation
* Activation of macrophages & specific T cells
## Footnote
This response is crucial for targeting infected or cancerous cells.
83
What are the main characteristics & purpose of a **T-cell receptor**?
2 polypeptide chains fixed to the cell membrane
## Footnote
T-cell receptors recognize specific antigens presented by MHC molecules.
84
Describe the main types of **T-cells** and their functions.
* T1 (CD4): Helper T-cells
* T2: Assist in B-cell activation
* T8 (CD8): Cytotoxic T-cells
* T regulatory: Suppress immune response
## Footnote
Each type of T-cell has a distinct role in the immune system.
85
How do **cytotoxic T-cells** kill cells?
* Perforins: Create pores in target cell membranes
* Induce apoptosis: Trigger programmed cell death
## Footnote
Cytotoxic T-cells primarily kill infected or cancerous cells.
86
Describe the **classical activation pathway** of the complement system.
Involves antibody-antigen complexes activating complement proteins
## Footnote
This pathway differs from the alternative pathway, which is activated by pathogen surfaces.
87
What role do **natural killer cells** play in specific immunity?
They target and kill infected or cancerous cells without prior sensitization
## Footnote
Natural killer cells are part of the innate immune response but also contribute to specific immunity.
88
Why are **T-cells** CENTRAL to the functioning of both the **humoral & cell-mediated immune responses**?
They coordinate and enhance the immune response through signaling and activation of other immune cells
## Footnote
T-cells are essential for both activating B-cells (humoral) and cytotoxic responses (cell-mediated).
89
What is a **vaccine**?
A substance used to stimulate the production of antibodies and provide immunity against diseases
## Footnote
Vaccines are crucial for preventing infectious diseases.
90
What is the difference between **prophylaxis** and **vaccination**?
* Prophylaxis: Preventive treatment to prevent disease
* Vaccination: Administration of a vaccine to induce immunity
## Footnote
Both aim to prevent disease but differ in methods.
91
In what way are **prophylaxis** and **vaccination** similar?
Both aim to prevent disease
## Footnote
They are strategies to enhance health and reduce disease incidence.
92
What role has **vaccination** played in the improvement of **public health**?
Significantly reduced incidence of vaccine-preventable diseases
## Footnote
Vaccination has led to the eradication or control of many infectious diseases.
93
Why is **prevention** better than **treatment** for patients?
Prevention reduces the risk of disease and associated costs
## Footnote
It is often more effective and economical than treating diseases after they occur.
94
Which makes more **economic sense**, prevention or treatment?
Prevention
## Footnote
Preventive measures often save healthcare costs in the long run.
95
Why do some **1st world citizens** fear the effects of vaccines more than the disease?
Concerns about vaccine safety and side effects
## Footnote
Despite serious complications from diseases, misinformation can lead to vaccine hesitancy.
96
Do people still die of **vaccine preventable diseases**?
Yes
## Footnote
Vaccine preventable diseases can still cause fatalities, especially in unvaccinated populations.
97
Are **vaccines** available for every disease?
No
## Footnote
Vaccines exist for many diseases, but not all diseases have vaccines.
98
Explain & give examples for: **active/passive** & **naturally acquired / artificially acquired immunity**.
* Active immunity: Body produces antibodies (e.g., vaccination)
* Passive immunity: Antibodies transferred (e.g., maternal antibodies)
* Naturally acquired immunity: Infection leads to immunity
* Artificially acquired immunity: Vaccination leads to immunity
## Footnote
These types of immunity describe how the body gains protection against diseases.
99
What is the **history of vaccination**?
Originated in the late 18th century with Edward Jenner's smallpox vaccine
## Footnote
The term 'vaccine' comes from 'vacca', meaning cow, due to the use of cowpox to immunize against smallpox.
100
Name some major **vaccine preventable diseases**.
* Measles
* Polio
* Diphtheria
* Tetanus
* Pertussis
## Footnote
These diseases can be effectively prevented through vaccination.
101
Why are some **VPDs** reemerging?
Vaccine hesitancy and reduced vaccination rates
## Footnote
Factors like misinformation and access issues contribute to the resurgence of these diseases.
102
What are the characteristics of the **best, safest & ideal vaccines**?
* Effective
* Safe
* Long-lasting immunity
* Easy to administer
## Footnote
Ideal vaccines should minimize side effects while maximizing protection.
103
Why do we give some vaccines to **newborns** while others are not given until children are older?
Some vaccines are more effective at certain ages due to immune system development
## Footnote
Timing of vaccination is based on when the immune system can respond optimally.
104
Why do some vaccines require **boosters**?
To maintain immunity levels over time
## Footnote
Immunity can wane, necessitating additional doses for continued protection.
105
Why do some people decide not to **vaccinate** their children?
Concerns about safety, misinformation, and personal beliefs
## Footnote
These decisions can lead to lower herd immunity and increased disease risk.
106
How does the decision not to vaccinate affect other children?
Increases the risk of outbreaks and compromises herd immunity
## Footnote
Unvaccinated individuals can spread diseases to vulnerable populations.
107
Define and give examples for each of the following types of **vaccinations**: Inactivated, Attenuated, Subunit, Conjugate, Toxoid, Recombinant, Immunoglobulin therapy.
* Inactivated: Killed pathogens (e.g., polio vaccine)
* Attenuated: Weakened pathogens (e.g., measles vaccine)
* Subunit: Pieces of pathogens (e.g., HPV vaccine)
* Conjugate: Sugar molecules linked to proteins (e.g., Hib vaccine)
* Toxoid: Inactivated toxins (e.g., tetanus vaccine)
* Recombinant: Genetically engineered (e.g., hepatitis B vaccine)
* Immunoglobulin therapy: Antibodies from donors
## Footnote
Each type of vaccination has a unique mechanism of action and application.
108
What is meant by **herd immunity**?
Protection of a population when a sufficient percentage is vaccinated
## Footnote
Herd immunity helps protect those who cannot be vaccinated.
109
What vaccines are typically given to **American children and adults**?
* DTaP
* MMR
* Polio
* Hepatitis B
* Influenza
## Footnote
Vaccination schedules vary by age and health guidelines.
110
Define **antigens**.
Substances that induce an immune response
## Footnote
Antigens can be proteins, polysaccharides, or other molecules that the immune system recognizes as foreign.
111
What are **allergens**?
Specific antigens that trigger allergic reactions
## Footnote
Allergens can include pollen, pet dander, and certain foods.
112
What is meant by an **overactive immune system** & **hypersensitivity**?
An immune response that is exaggerated or inappropriate
## Footnote
This can lead to allergic reactions and autoimmune diseases.
113
Define **tolerance** in the context of the immune system.
The ability of the immune system to recognize self-antigens and not mount an immune response
## Footnote
Tolerance is crucial for preventing autoimmunity.
114
What does **immunodeficiency** refer to?
A state where the immune system's ability to fight infections is compromised
## Footnote
This can be due to genetic factors, infections, or certain medications.
115
What is an **underactive immune system** & its relation to **cancer**?
A weakened immune response that may fail to detect and eliminate cancer cells
## Footnote
This can lead to increased susceptibility to tumors.
116
Define **autoimmunity**.
A condition where the immune system attacks the body's own tissues
## Footnote
This can lead to diseases such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis.
117
What is **tissue grafting**?
The transplantation of tissue from one site to another
## Footnote
This can involve isografts, allografts, and xenografts.
118
What are **isoantigens** & **isografts**?
* Isoantigens: Antigens that differ between individuals of the same species
* Isografts: Grafts between genetically identical individuals
## Footnote
Isografts minimize the risk of rejection.
119
What is a **hapten**?
A small molecule that can elicit an immune response only when attached to a larger carrier
## Footnote
Haptens are often involved in allergic reactions.
120
What are the **main causes of autoimmunity**?
* Genetic predisposition
* Environmental triggers
* Infections
## Footnote
Autoimmune diseases are often more common in women due to hormonal factors.
121
List the **main portals of entry for allergens** and give examples.
* Respiratory tract (e.g., pollen)
* Skin (e.g., insect venom)
* Gastrointestinal tract (e.g., food allergens)
## Footnote
These portals are common routes through which allergens enter the body.
122
Do all **hypersensitivities** require a sensitizing dose as well as a provocative dose?
Yes
## Footnote
The sensitizing dose primes the immune system, while the provocative dose triggers the reaction.
123
What is a **Type 1 Hypersensitivity** and what are the two forms?
* Immediate hypersensitivity
* Anaphylaxis
## Footnote
Mediated by IgE antibodies and involves mast cells and basophils.
124
How long does it take for clinical signs to appear during a **Type 1 hypersensitivity** reaction?
Minutes to hours
## Footnote
Symptoms can include hives, swelling, and difficulty breathing.
125
How is **Type 1 hypersensitivity** diagnosed, prevented, and treated?
* Diagnosed: Skin tests or blood tests
* Prevented: Avoiding allergens
* Treated: Antihistamines, corticosteroids
## Footnote
Immediate treatment is crucial in severe cases.
126
What is a **Type 2 Hypersensitivity**?
An immune response against specific cells or tissues, often involving IgG or IgM antibodies
## Footnote
This type can lead to cell destruction or dysfunction.
127
What specific cells, particles, and chemical agents mediate **Type 2 hypersensitivity**?
* IgG and IgM antibodies
* Complement system
* Phagocytes
## Footnote
These components work together to target and destroy affected cells.
128
Explain the genetics behind the **ABO and Rhesus reactions**.
Involves blood group antigens that can trigger immune responses in incompatible transfusions
## Footnote
The Rhesus factor is particularly important in pregnancy.
129
What is **Erythroblastosis fetalis**?
A hemolytic disease in newborns due to Rh incompatibility
## Footnote
Occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
130
What specific circumstances would result in **Erythroblastosis fetalis**?
Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive fetus during pregnancy
## Footnote
Can lead to severe anemia and jaundice in the newborn.
131
How is **Erythroblastosis fetalis** prevented and treated?
* Prevention: Rh immunoglobulin injections
* Treatment: Blood transfusions for the newborn
## Footnote
Early intervention is crucial for the health of the infant.
132
Give **5 examples of Type 2 diseases** and identify the specific body tissue targeted in each disease.
* Hemolytic anemia (red blood cells)
* Goodpasture syndrome (kidney and lung)
* Graves' disease (thyroid)
* Myasthenia gravis (neuromuscular junction)
* Rheumatic fever (heart)
## Footnote
Each disease involves an immune response against specific tissues.
133
What is a **Type 3 Hypersensitivity**?
A hypersensitivity reaction mediated by immune complexes
## Footnote
It differs from other types by the involvement of immune complexes that can deposit in tissues.
134
What specific **cells, particles, and chemical agents** mediate Type 3 Hypersensitivity?
* Immune complexes
* Complement proteins
* Neutrophils
## Footnote
These components contribute to the inflammatory response in Type 3 hypersensitivity.
135
How long does it take for **clinical signs** to appear during a hypersensitivity reaction?
Hours to days
## Footnote
The timing can vary depending on the individual and the specific reaction.
136
Which **bacterial genera** are notorious for causing Type 3 Hypersensitivity?
* Streptococcus
* Staphylococcus
## Footnote
These bacteria can lead to conditions such as serum sickness and glomerulonephritis.
137
What is **Glomerulonephritis**?
A kidney condition characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli
## Footnote
It can be a sequela of Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions.
138
What is **Serum sickness**?
An immune complex-mediated reaction following exposure to foreign serum
## Footnote
It is an example of Type 3 hypersensitivity.
139
What is an **Arthus reaction**?
A localized Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction characterized by swelling and redness at the injection site
## Footnote
It occurs after the injection of an antigen in a sensitized individual.
140
Give 2 examples of **Type 3 diseases** and identify the specific body tissue targeted.
* Systemic lupus erythematosus (target: skin, joints, kidneys)
* Rheumatoid arthritis (target: joints)
## Footnote
These diseases involve immune complex deposition in specific tissues.
141
What is a **Type 4 Hypersensitivity**?
A delayed-type hypersensitivity mediated by T cells
## Footnote
It differs from other types by the involvement of T cells rather than antibodies.
142
What specific **cells, particles, and chemical agents** mediate Type 4 Hypersensitivity?
* T lymphocytes
* Macrophages
* Cytokines
## Footnote
These components are crucial for the immune response in Type 4 hypersensitivity.
143
How long does it take for **clinical signs** to appear in Type 4 Hypersensitivity?
24 to 72 hours
## Footnote
The delayed response is characteristic of this type of hypersensitivity.
144
Give examples of **everyday substances** that can cause Type 4 contact dermatitis.
* Poison ivy
* Nickel
* Latex
## Footnote
These substances can trigger allergic reactions in sensitized individuals.
145
How does **Organ transplantation** relate to Type 4 hypersensitivity?
It can trigger a rejection response mediated by T cells
## Footnote
This is a common complication in transplant recipients.
146
What diagnostic utilizes **Type 4 hypersensitivity**?
Skin patch test
## Footnote
This test is used to identify allergens causing contact dermatitis.
147
Define **differential diagnosis**.
The process of distinguishing a disease or condition from others presenting similar symptoms
## Footnote
It is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
148
What are the **four main groups** of diagnostic identification schemes & methods used to identify diseases & etiological agents?
* Phenotypic tests
* Serological tests
* Genetic tests
* Biochemical tests
## Footnote
Each group has specific examples and applications in diagnosis.
149
Why is **patient history** important for the diagnosis of disease?
It provides context and clues that guide the diagnostic process
## Footnote
Good communication and meticulous examination are essential for accurate diagnosis.
150
What is the first step in eliminating possible culprits of the patient's disease when looking at their **signs & symptoms**?
Establishing a **differential diagnosis**
## Footnote
This method helps narrow down potential conditions.
151
What types of **patient samples** are usually taken for further tests?
* Blood
* Urine
* Tissue
* Swabs
## Footnote
Common sampling sites include veins, skin, and mucous membranes.
152
What precautions should be taken when obtaining a **patient sample**?
* Use sterile equipment
* Follow safety protocols
* Label samples accurately
## Footnote
These precautions help prevent contamination and ensure accurate results.
153
Define **phenotypic tests**.
Tests that identify organisms based on observable characteristics
## Footnote
Examples include biochemical tests and culture characteristics.
154
What is the difference between a **genetic test** and a **serological test**?
* Genetic tests: Analyze DNA/RNA for specific sequences
* Serological tests: Detect antibodies or antigens in blood
## Footnote
Each test serves different purposes in diagnosis.
155
Is it easier to look for **antigens** or **antibodies** when running a serological test?
It is generally easier to look for **antigens**
## Footnote
Antigen detection can provide quicker results in diagnosing infections.
156
What are examples of **serological tests**?
* ELISA
* Western blot
* Hemagglutination inhibition
## Footnote
These tests are used to detect antibodies or antigens in a sample.
157
What is **PCR/RT-PCR** used for?
Amplifying DNA or RNA sequences for analysis
## Footnote
It is a critical technique in genetic testing and pathogen detection.
158
What does **cDNA** stand for?
Complementary DNA
## Footnote
It is synthesized from an mRNA template and used in various genetic analyses.
159
What is the role of **Taq polymerase** in PCR?
It synthesizes new DNA strands during the amplification process
## Footnote
Taq polymerase is heat-stable, allowing it to function at high temperatures.
160
What is **gel electrophoresis** used for?
Separating DNA, RNA, or proteins based on size and charge
## Footnote
It is commonly used in DNA profiling and analysis.
161
What is **immunofluorescence test**?
A technique that uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies to detect specific antigens in cells or tissues
## Footnote
It is useful for diagnosing infections and autoimmune diseases.
162
What is the purpose of **microarrays**?
To analyze gene expression or genetic variations across multiple genes simultaneously
## Footnote
They allow for high-throughput analysis in genomics.
163
What does **CRISPR-cas9** refer to?
A genome editing technology that allows for precise modifications of DNA
## Footnote
It has applications in research, medicine, and biotechnology.
164
How are **Monoclonal antibodies** made?
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by creating hybridomas, which are formed by fusing a specific type of immune cell with a myeloma cell
## Footnote
This process allows for the production of identical antibodies that target a specific antigen.
165
Why are **Monoclonals** superior to **Polyclonal antibodies**?
Monoclonal antibodies are more specific, consistent, and can be produced in unlimited quantities
## Footnote
They target a single epitope, reducing variability compared to polyclonal antibodies.
166
How has the development of **Monoclonal antibodies** impacted modern clinical diagnosis?
Monoclonal antibodies have improved diagnostic accuracy and specificity in detecting diseases
## Footnote
They are widely used in various diagnostic tests and therapeutic applications.
167
Name & briefly explain how the main **serological tests** are performed.
* Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA): detects antibodies or antigens in a sample
* Western blot: confirms the presence of specific proteins
* Immunofluorescence: uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies to visualize antigens
## Footnote
These tests are used for diagnosing infections, autoimmune diseases, and more.
168
Name & briefly explain how the main **genetic tests** are performed.
* Polymerase chain reaction (PCR): amplifies DNA sequences for analysis
* Next-generation sequencing (NGS): sequences entire genomes or targeted regions
* Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH): visualizes specific DNA sequences in cells
## Footnote
These tests are essential for diagnosing genetic disorders and cancers.
169
What is the main purpose of **diagnosis**?
The main purpose of diagnosis is to identify a disease or condition accurately
## Footnote
This allows for appropriate treatment and management of the patient's health.
170
How long should a diagnosis take?
A diagnosis should be made as quickly as possible, ideally within a few hours to a few days
## Footnote
Timely diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment and better patient outcomes.
171
What happens if a patient is **misdiagnosed**?
Misdiagnosis can lead to inappropriate treatment, worsening of the condition, and potential harm to the patient
## Footnote
It can also result in increased healthcare costs and loss of trust in medical professionals.
172
Why is **team-work** so important for successful diagnosis?
Team-work allows for collaboration among healthcare professionals, leading to more comprehensive evaluations and better decision-making
## Footnote
Different perspectives and expertise can enhance diagnostic accuracy.
173
What is the most satisfactory outcome of **diagnosis**?
The most satisfactory outcome is the accurate identification of a condition that leads to effective treatment and improved patient health
## Footnote
This outcome enhances patient satisfaction and trust in the healthcare system.
174
What does never let monkey eat eat bananas mean?
Types of white blood cells in order of prevalence
1. Neutrophils (most)
2. Lymphocytes
3. Monocytes
4. Eosinophils
5. Basophils
Microbiology
flashcards
Decks in class (36)
# Cards
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Chemistry & Biochemistry49
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Ch 8 Metabolic109
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Ch. 13 Microbes131
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Ch, 4 Prokaryotes54
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Midterm Prep214
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Ch 189
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Ch. 2104
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Ch. 489
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Practice Test140
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Scientific Disease Names10
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Euk Vs Prok167
-
DNA Rep27
-
Lab Practicum19
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Ch. 5 Eukaryotes245
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Ch. 6147
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Ch. 9386
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Test 2 Review132
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#11-51 Cards31
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Ch. 7285
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Ch. 11349
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Ch. 12415
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Extra 12450
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Lab Review128
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Lec 3 Review64
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Ch 1456
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Disease Cards 21-28, 52-6825
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Disease Card Quiz177
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Ch. 15315
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Ch. 16319
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Final Study Guide174
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#10-20137
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#21-31169
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#32-43155
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#44-54160
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#55-68211
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Ch 1748
